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yes: i’ve quoted the Kit answer here
“The augmented profits threshold is adjusted for the number of related 51% group companies at the end of the previous accounting period. Therefore, Curtain Ltd is not included for the
purposes of adjusting the limit for the year ended 31 March 2022.”Hello Sir, sorry for a late response.
Thank you, i’ll keep that in mind next time.
The question is actually from a set of LRP questions.
specifically Qn 21.
It is a document i found in the StuDocu App.
Perhaps the document may have a mistake then.
Regardless of the case, I hope my way of analysing the question correct.kindly,
Sukaina.OMG yes i made a mistake, i posted on the wrong forum!!!
Thanks for notifying me.
Also, sorry lecturer.yes indeed, I was confused to see why they don’t add up to give the same answers either way.
Thank you for assuring I wasn’t going wrong anywhere and the problem was in the question.
Kind regards
Sukaina.ok I now I understand the difference in the two questions but:
for the second question if we are finding what the unemployment would have been if we removed the seasonality wouldn’t that be the Trend?
Also when we take the seasonal factor and multiply with the trend to get the actual unemployment the answer is (0.92*4300)= 3956. So how is 4700 right in the first place? or is it just because there maybe other factors that may be influencing the actual unemployment?
I’m sorry for the trouble :/
Thank you sir,
I now understand the extra contribution and the fact that 60,000 is the only relevant inflows at the moment.
just wanted to ask if a cash inflow and outflow statement is made for the new technology, for years 1 to 4 we wont keep and cash inflows from sales proceeds as they are irrelevant right? only in the final year we keep the proceeds from the disposal.Ow yes!
I guess I just confused myself at the end.
Actually I haven’t yet watched it, I better watch it right away.
Thank you so much sir John 🙂Hello sir, i was going through this qn.
But still dont get it.
When you say discount both in the normal way how.
For the 100,000 its on year 1 not on year 0.
So do we discount it using the simple discounting formulae of X × (1+r)^-n
and get $90909.
Then for the 13000 we discount it using the perpetuity formula which is X × (1÷r)
And get $130,000.
So we take $90909 – $130,000 = -39090.Is this how its done.
If yes, the NPV is a negative but the answer is in positive, so can u ignore the negative in this case?Wow Ayysha that’s amazing, I’m going to do mine this December. can you pls share with me what materials did you use. i mean i just listen to the lectures here and solve the exam kit. I don’t really read the study guide. did u read the study guide as well from the official ACCA publishers? do you think its worth reading the whole text
Hi ather hope ur good, was going through and saw your question.
– So if u notice the year ends on 30th April 20×6.
– his last payment was on march for 3 MONTHS TO: to 28th February 20×6.
– Now this statement means he paid electricity bill for December, January and February.
– This is because electricity bills are usually paid after the electricity is used then a bill is sent after the electricity is already used to have accurate charges to the customer.
– so don’t confuse yourself thinking the bill paid in march was for march, April and May. NO!
– The payment was for 3 month to 28th February. this means that on march he paid his bill due from December 20X5 to February 20×6 to complete his 3 month bill.
– This means that at the end of April 20×6, he has not yet paid for march and April.
– therefore the charge per month is calculated as being the same as the charge per month for the previous three months.– $3270 divide by 3.
– makes $1090 per month.
– hence accruals for the 2 months march and April will be $1090 times 2
– giving $2180 accruals at the year end.
