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- March 2, 2016 at 6:26 pm #303081
June 2012 Q4a How to calculate the combined equity beta?
why do we still need to calculate WACC after capm?February 11, 2016 at 8:29 am #300013Sorry I mean past year question…my bad
February 11, 2016 at 6:22 am #299998I have watched the video. And I’m doing it according to the video
N(d1)=0.5+0.2324=0.7374 and N(d2)=0.5+0.0753=0.5753Instead of doing it like in the PYQ as below
N(d1)=0.5+0.2291+0.7x(0.2324-0.2291)=0.7314
N(d2)=0.5+0.0753+0.3x(0.0793-0.0753)=0.5765I don’t understand the method use in PYQ answers.
July 18, 2015 at 7:21 pm #261077I used bpp and also self studied for f8
July 9, 2015 at 11:03 am #260287One more sir I cant find the past year question before year 2010. Is it not relevant to this year sitting?
April 14, 2015 at 5:22 pm #241294part a if i calculate the asset cost of 1 million without bracket sign and tax benefit with bracket sign my answer would be different. is this wrong?
April 12, 2015 at 5:04 pm #241028PART B why not take into account the ;license fee?im confused with part a n b
April 12, 2015 at 4:58 pm #241026PART A question says based on financing cashflows only means only consider the outflow?what about the savings from operating cost?
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