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DEC 2009 Q1

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › DEC 2009 Q1

  • This topic has 5 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 11 years ago by AvatarJohn Moffat.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • April 12, 2015 at 4:37 pm #241021
    Avatarsky1407
    Member
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    Hi sir why is there a tax benefit for license fee?

    April 12, 2015 at 4:58 pm #241026
    Avatarsky1407
    Member
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    PART A question says based on financing cashflows only means only consider the outflow?what about the savings from operating cost?

    April 12, 2015 at 5:04 pm #241028
    Avatarsky1407
    Member
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    PART B why not take into account the ;license fee?im confused with part a n b

    April 13, 2015 at 6:52 am #241067
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54836
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The license fee is an expense, it will reduce the taxable profit as do all expenses, and therefore it will save tax.

    The savings from operating cost will be made whichever way the project is financed and therefore it is irrelevant to the decision as to whether they lease or buy (which is why the question specifically says to consider the financing costs only – i.e. those flows that will be different depending how it is financed)

    Part b does take into account the licence fee – it is included in the calculation of the 974,762 (the PV of buying. It was not included separately when calculating leasing in part a because the lease payment included the license fee).

    April 14, 2015 at 5:22 pm #241294
    Avatarsky1407
    Member
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    part a if i calculate the asset cost of 1 million without bracket sign and tax benefit with bracket sign my answer would be different. is this wrong?

    April 14, 2015 at 5:35 pm #241296
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54836
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Yes – it would be wrong!

    Paying for the asset is an outflow and is therefore a negative cash flow and should therefore be bracketed.

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