Forum Replies Created
- AuthorPosts
- June 7, 2016 at 7:25 am #320163
Thanks John π
June 6, 2016 at 6:18 pm #319968Hi John,
Regarding issue cost, if it is 2% gross of finance required it means we have to calculate by x 100/98 to get the gross amount.
For calculating the tax shield and subsidy benefit, why don’t we calculate as per the gross amount?
Thank you
January 25, 2016 at 12:46 pm #297822i also need the same help. Can it be prepared in one month with self study?
Have you started Vaidehi?
November 30, 2015 at 6:19 pm #286510I have the same question but I couldn’t see the answer
November 15, 2015 at 4:27 pm #282579Opening and closing balance as per parents SFP
Share on profit as per P&L 73 not too sure it’s after tax or not. There is no information regarding tax.So if it is associates gain, it will be under investing operations in cash flows?
November 15, 2015 at 12:11 pm #282533Thanks Mike.
This is the information from the question
Opening balance 72 (per SFP)
Share of profit in associates 73 (no tax provided) (P&L)
Dividend received 61 (notes)
Closing balance 96 (per SFP)Can I assume that the difference of 12 (balancing figure) as an investment in associates?
May 26, 2015 at 4:24 pm #249247Thanks a million John! Now it’s cleared π
May 26, 2015 at 4:22 pm #249246Oh yea understood. Thanks π
May 26, 2015 at 12:41 pm #249152Hi John,
To calculate Y3 dividend why do we need to divide by (0.12-0.03)?
April 8, 2015 at 2:43 am #240477Sorry John
Beta equity > Beta asset; WACC < Cost of equity calculated using beta asset; WACC < Cost of equity calculated using beta equity
December 2, 2014 at 8:55 am #215769Mcqs were so mean. And relevant costing no practice.
November 21, 2014 at 3:48 am #211781Because Ventor is the associates and has acquired since 1 October which is only 6 months. If I’m not wrong π
November 17, 2014 at 11:39 pm #210825Is it because of additional depreciation of $100?
November 17, 2014 at 11:22 pm #210823Hi Mike,
Back to q1.
When calculating retained earning, southstar post acquisition should be 6/12*($4600) – 600 = $2,900. But on the answer its $3,000. Can you explain please.
Thank you
November 16, 2014 at 11:17 pm #210563Though of knowing easiest way to understand under/over provision.
November 16, 2014 at 11:13 pm #210562Yes I got it. Thanks Mike
November 16, 2014 at 8:14 pm #210532Mike,
When current tax is in debit side, it’s definitely under provision. Am I right?
November 13, 2014 at 1:27 pm #209619hi guys…how is the study going on..??? is there any group created??
August 13, 2014 at 8:12 pm #189949So Dec exam will have multiple choice?
May 22, 2014 at 1:27 pm #170107This is what made me confuse. I thought that were net. Thanks a lot John.
May 22, 2014 at 1:14 pm #170105If they were discounted, why do we need to get off the 5% again if TD stop? If 950,000 is net then the actual price should have been 1,000,000. Sorry if my question is silly. But I’m still confuse.
May 22, 2014 at 1:06 pm #170101The 70 & 100 were not discounted price?
May 6, 2014 at 8:24 pm #167694I have failed last dec and trying again now. It’s soooooo hard. Hope we can do it better this time!
- AuthorPosts