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- December 1, 2010 at 11:58 am #72122
My problem now is, what is the sense behind this treatment? I just can’t get it out of my head with a sensible understanding.
December 1, 2010 at 4:30 am #72120Well, I’ve seen one question which came from past sittings before the change of the syllabus to P2 but I’m not sure which sitting was that.
The question is something like follows:
H acquired 80% of interest in S(which has 500m of $1 ordinary shares) for $800m on 1 Apr 20X4 and the reserves at this date was $100m and acquired the whole of $40m 10% debentures in issue by S at a cost of $60m.
Abstract of SOCI ftye 31 Dec 20X4:
H
Interest receivable $4mS
Interst payable $4mThe answer for Goodwill is $339m.
Could you please explain to me about the treatment?
Thank you!
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