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pohneetale

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Active 14 years ago
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  • December 1, 2010 at 11:58 am #72122
    Avatarpohneetale
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    My problem now is, what is the sense behind this treatment? I just can’t get it out of my head with a sensible understanding.

    December 1, 2010 at 4:30 am #72120
    Avatarpohneetale
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    Well, I’ve seen one question which came from past sittings before the change of the syllabus to P2 but I’m not sure which sitting was that.

    The question is something like follows:

    H acquired 80% of interest in S(which has 500m of $1 ordinary shares) for $800m on 1 Apr 20X4 and the reserves at this date was $100m and acquired the whole of $40m 10% debentures in issue by S at a cost of $60m.

    Abstract of SOCI ftye 31 Dec 20X4:

    H
    Interest receivable $4m

    S
    Interst payable $4m

    The answer for Goodwill is $339m.

    Could you please explain to me about the treatment?

    Thank you!

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