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My problem now is, what is the sense behind this treatment? I just can’t get it out of my head with a sensible understanding.
Well, I’ve seen one question which came from past sittings before the change of the syllabus to P2 but I’m not sure which sitting was that.
The question is something like follows:
H acquired 80% of interest in S(which has 500m of $1 ordinary shares) for $800m on 1 Apr 20X4 and the reserves at this date was $100m and acquired the whole of $40m 10% debentures in issue by S at a cost of $60m.
Abstract of SOCI ftye 31 Dec 20X4:
H
Interest receivable $4m
S
Interst payable $4m
The answer for Goodwill is $339m.
Could you please explain to me about the treatment?
Thank you!
