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If the management of target company does not comply with IAS 37 on making provision for sale return, they make provision base on sale amount, why audit firm should pay attention to this matter before tendering due diligence engagement.Please help me to explain.This is also a part of my exam yesterday, I just tell that that estimate is subjective and subject to management bias, breach of financial reporting rule.so, audit firm should pay attention.May I be award any marks for this?

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I confuse with this question.

So far I apply your method in the lecture to deal with all question on swap and it has the result the same with examiner.

But in this question, it did not the same.

You said that a half of my answer is correct.

Could you please show me how to solve the remaining part of the answer using the method as your lecture ?

Why in your lecture and other question, the calculation of end result does not take into account of bank charge but in this question, it must to take into account of bank charge?

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1. Actually, the answer in Revision Kit has not show the calculation of 96 option. I must show this calculation in the exam to gain full mark ?

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When I read again page on collar and present exercise price/ future price in SD20 question in % term, I can understand why exercise or not exercise the option. Can I present exercise price/ future price in this way in the exam ?

In the exam, is it required to explain the reason for exercise or not exercise the option same as the examiner did to gain full mark?

If I just prepare full calculation and make a conclusion exercise/not exercise, can I get full mark ?

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Logically, can I understand that total post ac’ value of Kerin and Danto in case of share exchange for share is the same with cash offer ?

If so, I can understand that the difference in my above question is only due to rounding.

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I do not have the original question and answer of Kerrin question in Sep/ Dec 2019.

I only have BPP Revision Kit for exam Sep23 onwards. May be the question and answer was amended, hence I can not search the working you said in 1 &3

3. Please check 350 or 360m new Kerrin shares issued to Danto shareholder?
750 + 350 = 1100 , not 1110

360m is round of 140m *2.57 ?

Why total post ac’ value of Kerin and Danto = 4028.2+1917.4 = 5945.6, which is not equal to 5.931.7 ?

Thank you.

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Please explain

1.Where does the figure 524.4 come from (in your above answer) ?

2. Where the figure 356.4 million shares need to be offered to Danton come from ( in the examiner answer)?

3. Where does the figures 1110 in the calculation of post acquisition value come from ( in the examiner answer)?

Thank you

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Can I be awarded full marks if I just calculate the figure which impact SOFP and clearly stating which items increase/decrease without presenting full SOFP with 3 columns (original, adjustment and final) as the answer ?

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Thank you.

I do not have full question of Sep/Dec 17. The question extracted in revision Kit does not include the requirement of new equity beta and revised WACC.

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Sorry my revision Kit does not have the line which shows the calculation of 12.19.
Could you please write the formular here?
Thank you.

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I would like to ask 1 more question:

Louieed Co’s gearing prior to bid = 540/(540+(340*12.19) = 11.5%

Where does 12.19 come from ?

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Which chapter contains your lecture for content of method of valuing bonds?

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There are 3 separate bonds in issue.Why interest in 1 year of 7 discount for bond 2 is discounted by 1 year return of bond 1 ?Do you have any lecture on this topic?

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That is the question of Coeden company.The requirement is calculate and comment on Coeden Co cost of equity and WACC before and after implementing the proposal.Thank you.

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In question Amberle Dec 2018, interest of bank loan is 8%, interest of subsidiy loan is 3.1%, risk free rate is 4%.
The examiner said that tax shield could be discounted at 3.1% or 8%
Can I use risk free rate 4% for discounting in this case?

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Please help me to explain why in question Sep/Dec 21, debt finance = initial investment + working capital = 70+10
but in question Mar/Jun 18, debt finance = initial investment only = 30.6
Thank you

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In Sep /Dec ( Zhichi ), the risk free rate is 4.8%, normal borrowing rate is 6%.
But the examiner uses the rate of 3% to calculate the benefit of tax shield.

Please help me to explain.

I also do not understand why the information provided ” interest rate of 180 basis point lower that the risk free rate of 4.8%” has not been taken into when calculating benefit of tax shield and tax paid for subsidy benefit.

The information provided in MJ2018 (Tippletine) is the same “interest payable at a rate of 30 basis point below the risk free rate of 2.5%” but it has been taken into in the answer.

Thank you.

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Thank you, I understand.

Pleas help me to answer the 2nd question :
What is the meaning of calculation of total NPV for 2 cases : with and without considering the offer from Kero : 29K+4.3m = 4.359 m ?

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Sorry, I have just remembered the concept of e when I learned in high school so far. it is equal to 2,71828182846.
But I did not see the button delete of topic. Please ignore my question

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This is question 3 of Pre Mock Sep 2022.

It is Jul 20X5. You are an audit manager and in charge of the audit of Weddell Co, which is nearing completion. The manger previously assigned to the audit of Weddel Co has been moved to another assignment and you have been assigned to take on the manager’s role for the remainder of the audit. Materiality has been set at $800.000 for asset and liabilities and $250.000 for income and expenses.

The audit supervisor has brought the following matter to your attention:

Weddell Co made a loan of $6,000 to Mawson (CFO) in Mar 20X5.The amount is recognised as a current asset at FV. The loan carries an interest rate of 4% which we have confirmed to be the market rate for short term loan and we have concluded that loan is at terms equivalent to an arm’s length transaction. Mawson has provided written confirmation that loan will be repaid by 31 Oct 20X5.The only other audit work performed was to agree the cash payment to the cash book. Detail of loan have not been separately disclosed in FS.

Require:

Comment on the sufficiency of evidence obtained and recommend any further audit procedures necessary.

Comment on the matter to be considered and explain any adjustment that may be necessary to FS.

Please help me to comment on the sufficiency of evidence obtained.

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Here is the full question: Comment on the sufficiency of evidence obtained.

Weddell Co made a loan of $6,000 to Mawson (CFO) in Mar 20X5.The amount is recognised as a current asset at FV. The loan carries an interest rate of 4% which we have confirmed to be the market rate for short term loan and we have concluded that loan is at terms equivalent to an arm’s length transaction. Mawson has provided written confirmation that loan will be repaid by 31 Oct 20X5,
The only other audit work performed was to agree the cash payment to the cash book. Detail of loan have not been separately disclosed in FS.

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Dear Sir,
I am writing to thank you so much for your support in SBR.
I am strictly following your method: see flash cash every day, listen to your debrief, learn how to ear easy mark.
I pass SBR with 65 marks for 1st attempt, it is incredible. I am already struggled with SBR when reading textbook and long answer from examiner, but your method builds my confidence and help me overcome SBR.
I hope that you will have more debrief in AAA which is extremely useful as SBR.
Once again, thank you so much!

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Please help me to explain why the materiality benchmark of 2 million (lower end of the range) has been set in the Q1 of Pre-Mock Dec’22 ?

The question requires that overall materiality to be based on the profitability.This is a new client.
5%-10% of Gross profit: $3.25 million – 6.5 million
5%-10% of operating profit: $0.6 million – 1.2 million
5%-10% of PBT: $0.4 million – 0.8 million
I do not understand how to calculate materiality benchmark of 2 million?

Thank you,

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I already downloaded for Q1 and Q3 but there is not link for download Q2,it is only external launch.Please help me check if there is a link to download Q2.Thank you.

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Dear Mr Kim,

Debrief videos for AAA is not actived now, do you know any other acitve link ?

Thank you.

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Dear Sir
In illustrative solution of specimen exam, which is issued by Opentution, question 4.b
“The gains/losses on the remeasurement of the defined benefit pension scheme are reclassified through profit or loss.”
Is there any mistake in this answer?
Thanks

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Dear sir,

2. I think employee in subsidiary complete service to parent, hence in subsidiary’ FS, expense recognised in PL will be FV at the grant date of full cost relating the service, Is that right?

Thanks

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Sorry sir, please ignore my above question.I have confused.It already adjusted for the calculation of goodwill.

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Dear sir, in mock 1,q1,BPP Kit, the acquisition takes place on 1 Dec 20×3, contingent liability at that date is recognized at FV of 6 ml.In Mar 20×4, there is a revision on estimate of liability to 5ml.Why change in FV of liability is not taken into change in goodwill calculation? Thanks

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I understand your calculation and the calculation in examiner answer is the same.
But I only do not understand the explanation in examiner answer: “when proportion method is applied, as only 19.6m goodwill is recognised within consolidate, the impairment attributable to the notional goodwill is not recognised.”

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