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My formula for perpetuity was wrong for the license , instead of CF/R i did CF/1+R which is practically formula for PV first year.
Exam stress.
i had CF/R first later got confused and changed to CF/1+R.
i didnt see the requirement to calculate the APV even though the financing info was given.
All i did was calculate the PV of cheap loan using the cost of investment. hope some marks are given for efforts.NPV i did for both rates. domestic and foreign.
All above relates to Q1.
what a healthy discussion 🙂
i gained a lot of insight, like most of my queries were discussed here.
Kudos to the community.
Thank you sir !
i watched your lecture multiple times word by word and noticed your mention of the printed answer and checked it there.
Your short replies are always to the point.
is this like a reversal of impairment ?
so its reversing the previous expenditure.
Transaction cost are not always added to Fin Assets.
If the intention is to trade then FVPL so cost is directly expensed to SPL and not added to Fin Assets.However if intent is to hold then the cost needs to be spread over the life of asset, hence its treated as attributable to asset and added to the Asset Value.
Transaction costs are deducted from Financial liability.
By deducting transaction costs, the carrying amount of the liability is adjusted to reflect the net amount that the entity is obligated to pay to the creditor.
The proceeds from issuance is viewed to be received after the deduction.
m not a tutor but my two cents says it is.
Back office operation like finance or admin who dont generate cash flow on their own arent.
I am studying from the latest Kaplan text.
I guess they keep the same texts and just keep updating the front page.But m satisfied with your answer that both harvested and on vine must be valued.
the text answer prescribed otherwise.
this is much clearer sir.
However why does kaplan go talking about all the tax bases and temporary differences while the CV of lease asset and liabilities are same (10m) @ tax rate 30%
They have recommended to record :
Dr Deferred tax assets $3m
Cr Deferred tax liabilities $3m(technically this is also zero)
As per your advise, since they have same value , 30% ( 10m – 10m) is zero.
just wanted to refine my understanding.
sometimes my curiosity goes to OCD levels.
just so i understood properly.
Let’s assume you have an expense that can be capitalised (e.g. bricks)
Dr contract asset Cr Cash 5000 —– understood ( this is when u incurred to prep for the contract)
Then, when sale is recognised ( i would like to know if the contract gets paid next year jun in full but we are here at the current year end and have the need to recognize revenue.
Lets also assume 30% work was completed by year end.)
Dr COS Cr Contract asset 5000. ( does passing a cost of sale entry equate to recognizing revenue ? )
Dr Cash Cr Revenue 10000 ( i think this is when payment gets release by customer )
i would appreciate a bit of elaboration.
Apologies for dragging this.Parag.
Well i think the exam went better than the last time.
Q1 was split into business and audit risk along with some procedure.
Q2 was good enough
Q3. I hate this question as the full 20 marks came from quality management which i hadnt revised well, i knew the problems and explained them well, but when i checked the notes, i hadnt pointed out the specific problems like, Leadership , Time management, HR and employee etc.
Hope i get marks for at least pointing and describing the issue.
Also would have been great help if this 20 mark was split into two questions from different syllabus areas, so at least i could have had written the second option more accurately.
Fingers crossed, good luck to all and wish me luck as well.
Share capital given is 50000 so as per calculation dividend paid should be 50000*2.4*0.04*6/12 = 2400
but the answer give has calculated as 50000*5*2.4*0.04 = 24000
could you please explain this as exam is tomorrow.
