[olka]

78%

[olka]

@ramilbaku said:
I also agree. In June I was expecting at least 55 but when results were known it was 46. And I also was shocked. This time did new exam kit of Kaplan 2 times, watched some videos of Opentuition (not all of them) and was very confident that this time I will score more but questions in MCQ part were very difficult. In OT online f9 tests it took in general max 40-50 minutes to complete the tests but this time in exam it took 82 minutes to compelte MCQs plus some questions are tricky and were not mentioned in books. And the rest of the questions in B part was designed in such a way that it is hard to do everything in this time-frame.
ACCA is earning money and is interested in our failures that’s all.

Did you compare your answers with acca ones? Were they the same?

[olka]

@estyle said:
Hi John.
thanks for your reply.
but i’m still confused about Q10.

an increase in the cash operating cycle =
1) shorter pay to vendors, may be able to claim more discount
2) longer inventory turnover days, may be more inventory which is more profitable than cash in hand
3) longer receivable turnover days, may be more attractive to clients
all of them indicate an increase in profitability.

i know that shorter cycle might be better, because it lowers risk to liquidity problem and make the business more “healthy”.
but longer cycle do increase profitablity i think.

totaly agree

[olka]

@mcparland20 said:
Hi Guys

Anyone remember the question on MCQs where we had to deal with a convertible loan. And it gave us a before tax cost of cap of 6% and an after tax cost of cap of 9%

Which one where we supposed to use. I think the answers where $97 and €107 approx ??? Please tell me I used the right one – thanks??

if i remember correctly after tax cost of capital was 6% and before was 9% so you should use before tax cost – 9%

[olka]

I ment, how to calculate market value of shares based on valuation on future dividends

[olka]

Q5 If the mater of going concern was disclosed appropriately – unmodified opinion with emphasis of mater, if not disclosed appropriately – qualified opinion

[olka]

@accawasim
not 100% sure but i think you don’t divide negative goodwill between parent and subsidiary (all goes to RE of parent)

[olka]

Q1 got negative goodwill – added back to RE, depreciated difference revalued asset, pup is 600, reduced revenue and cost of sales by 9 and 4, over all everything balanced
Q2 got profit of 2 on contract, revaluation on asset was reduced by deferred tax, normal depreciation of 5 on leased asses, lease is divided into long term (something like 16 (don’ remember) and short term (6.5 i think), i didn’t recognise insurance costs of 400 (not probable) and increased costs by 250 (as already incurred), deferred tax were split into two parts – revaluation and normal, so finally i had to distract it from normal tax. again everything balanced
Q3 got 0.5 negative
Q 4 all of the activities i suppose were loans
Q5 left it as operational lease with rentals, capitalised expenditure over 8 years, 5 treated as provision, with finance cost of 400 pa
did anyone get something something similar?

[Author]

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