[ngannguyen]

pass, thanks opentuition!

[ngannguyen]

@P2-D2 said:
Hi,

The income approach is very similar to the value in use of an asset.

Thanks

Thank sir, but I don’t understand that.
FV is price that would be received to sell assets.
Why FV is valuated by use asset
It seem inconsistent
Thanks for your help

[ngannguyen]

Hi Mike!

I’m confusing that the difference between value in use and FV from income approach
FV is price that would be received to sell assets
But income approach same to value in use of asset

Please explain this for me

Thank you, sir

[ngannguyen]

Dear Sir!
I think if the question is about receivable, it is easier to make me understand.

By the way,is study text 2015 out of date?

Thank you in advance.

[Author]

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