[Molaseni1]

Second attempt, I passed with 63%, the first attempt was 47%. Glory be to God

[Molaseni1]

Passed with 63%. First attempt. Two more to go!

[Molaseni1]

I thought I was the only one feeling weird about this exam.

So many new areas and complicated additions which was not covered in the text and revision kit.
It seems one has to cram the whole standard for you to understand the question
and the time!!! So short! I was still on question 1 when I had about 1 hour left, yet could not complete the question 1.

It is well, Lets hope for the best.

[Molaseni1]

I had same questions:

Q1 Kaizen, JIT, Six sigma, ERPS
Q2 ABM
Q3 Benchmarking

Very challenging and no time, I was not able to do much on Benchmarking. and I didnt even touch ERPS

[Molaseni1]

Thanks Mr Ken, for the clarification.
God bless you

[Molaseni1]

Thanks,

So is it correct to say, for example, staff productivity is a measure, achieving 100 units per hour is a target

The measure is also the KPI, right?

[Molaseni1]

Okay, Thanks

[Molaseni1]

okay, thanks.

[Molaseni1]

I passed with 72%. Thanks Chris and the Open Tuition team

[Molaseni1]

Okay, thanks for the confirmation.

[Molaseni1]

Hello Sir,

Please I want to confirm if its allowed to use the proforma format of the consolidated profit & loss in the exam. I noticed the format was not used in BPP review kit.

Sorry I did not want to create another subject heading for this question.

Thanks

[Molaseni1]

Thanks for your prompt response.

[Molaseni1]

Another question of the same pattern was treated the same way in Section C. the explanation was that the associate is not a member of the group so their PUP on inventory does not affect group inventory.

Please sir, is this correct? which of the two accounting treatment should I follow in an exam situation?

Thanks for your help.

[Molaseni1]

Thanks for the response.

I actually used T- account, I just didn’t put it in my illustration.

So what I did was to just DR deferred tax account with the diff (8400-5600=2800) then split the 2800 into OCI & P&L.

So just to confirm I understand your explanation, I have to CR deferred tax with the revaluation amount before calculating the movement that will go to P&L. am I correct?

Thanks.

[Molaseni1]

I am referring to the question 4 of the practice Question link at the top of the page

[Molaseni1]

Thanks for the clarification

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