[khuramch]

Pass @ 57 soo Happy 🙂
Thanks Jhon Moffat.

[khuramch]

I consult with you because Sir john told me that you teach the new subject hence you know know much more then others..

its very very helpful if you suggest me best way…

[khuramch]

Thankyou soo much sir for guide me..

[khuramch]

As i remember there are too much D’s in Mcqs

[khuramch]

Hello Sir

I also confuse in this question..

Well thanks for Calculation..

i need to know what is mean by 3 way Spot calculation..Also Why we use them

Thanks

[khuramch]

Sorry Sorry

Book reference is Ch#15,Ex#7———–Omega PLC

[khuramch]

Oh god..

Dont now Why my mind soo upset when exams are too near..

[khuramch]

Sir there is no Typing error in book..actually there is error in myself i type it wrong here..
And i really feel shame to tell you the truth..
Thatswhy i told you i am going to ignore..

And yes.you are right question said earnings before intrest and tax..Not gearing before int and tax.
Sorry..

[khuramch]

so i am going to ignore this question

Thanks allot sir

[khuramch]

Sorry sorry sorry…
there is written somewhere above the Question that O.P increased by double then the interest..

i mean due to O.P double the Earning is increase..

Now i got the point thanks allot..

[khuramch]

Well Really thanks for your continuous replies..

Sir i now how to calculate pre and post tax..

Point is Currently we are not workout to any tax situation..

So;
This is only a future Value(Pre tax value)=127050
Tax(30%)=38115
Post tax Value=88935

So 127050 is only use as a post tax value…if we already payed tax on this value..but we are not..

Plz Help me where you find me wrong..

[khuramch]

Thanks Sir 🙂

[khuramch]

Its only john who explain you the correct way to deal with this Mcq..
But i just want to confirm that the correct Option is C=45%

[khuramch]

Sorry Sorry i understand this Mcq

Because its perpetuity when we Divide by Factor its come to one year earlier from where prepetuity start..

So no need to multiply by D.F..and Multiply by one year D.F when calculating TAX

Am i right Sir??

[khuramch]

Of source sir you are right..
And its impossible to start inflow without investing in year0…I mean start inflow before year 0

Then whats happening in BPP 16/17 Mcq# 97

[khuramch]

Thanks sir..

[khuramch]

yes there is my mistake..
Well now i understand clearly
thanks alot

[khuramch]

ok sir now i understand..thanks alot

[khuramch]

Thanks Sir fr your reply..

But Why num of days in the year is irrelevant..We calculate Avg rec by working backward on Avg days formuls..In which total num of days consider every time..

Then why not its relevant in this question..

Also How i found days relevance..

[khuramch]

Oops
Sorry sir..
Biggest mistake..not read carefully..

[khuramch]

for example on page 36 of free notes.required to prepare cash flow forecast.
you explain that example in much detail i understand it clearly but sir dont understand specfic meaning of (following month,following purchase)
(b); purchase are paid the month following year..if i re-right them as (purchase are paid in next month of the purchases..is that correct??
also (c)25% the following moths..its same if i said..25% in the next month??

[khuramch]

Nope..its Becker Mock question
Also i do different questions on absorption costing…All are done through the same format..
and my ans on all questions rather then this are correct..so i am going to ignore this question..
Thanks allot..

[khuramch]

Sir i watch your lecture on crumbly cakes
you explain this question in much details..
I clearly understand the fact

thankyou soo much 🙂

[khuramch]

Awww i think now i understand it after a long struggle

Fixed cost is irrelevant no matter we transfer or not its already incurred
Lost contribution less variable cost is correct ans

Am i right SIR??

[khuramch]

Thankyou soo much sir for your replies..
now i understand clearly..

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