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Hi again.
I am still waiting for you to get back… my results is 38(( i dont know why.. its soo low. I was expecting at least 45.. i think they didnt count any of optional questions. Thats the only possible explanation of my low result
were the below issues in two different questions? Or were they in one question?
– Held For Sale and Discontinued Operations (with binding offer)
– Purchase of Retail outlets (with FX gains (Peso) and losses issues)Hi. Were the below two issues in two different questions? Or as a part of one question?
– the one related HFS and Discontinued Operations (with binding offer)
– the one related to FX operations – purchase of retail outlet with loan.
Second question: what will happen if market based condition is not met at all? Thus, if shareprice doesnt go up above 5 dollar? What will be the entry? Reversing the expense and equity? the study book says no adjustment is nereded in tota equity. Why? But apwe should reverse it bcoz its no more our expense and corresponding equity increase should also be reversed??
I have question on the same issue above.
I dont understand the concept of ignoring market based conditions (share price increase above 5dollar) condition when measuring and defining timing of expense.
Why do we then impose condition if we will ignore it? But there are two conditions attached not one. Why dont we then put only one condition of service for 2 years.? Whatsthe point?
How do they take account of market conditions when defining fair value of option at grant date? How come does it become sufficient to ignore that condition subsequently? Plzzzz help
@khayala19 said:
One more question: why do we need to know FVA (fair value adjustment -usually being uplift in land or other PPE ) at the date of acquisition?We do not make any adjustment with regard to this fva, when consolidating the accounts (unless fva leads to additional depreciation). So why do then we need this info in Notes?
@khayala19 said:
It is post acuisition Gain on Subsubsidiary (Caller) and when consolidating, they remove it from group reserves and credit from investment in subsidiary. Probably its anological to purp right? They eliminate that gain bcoz it is a gain obtained on thr entity in the same group.One more question: why do we need to know FVA (fair value adjustment -usually being uplift in land or other PPE ) at the date of acquisition?
We do not make any adjustment with regard to this fva, when consolidating the accounts (unless fva leads to additional depreciation). So why do then we need this info in Notes?
It is post acuisition Gain on Subsubsidiary (Caller) and when consolidating, they remove it from group reserves and credit from investment in subsidiary. Probably its anological to purp right? They eliminate that gain bcoz it is a gain obtained on thr entity in the same group.
Mike Hi. In the above correspondence you have stated that “By deducting the 53.3 notional nci goodwill, that leaves us with 247 impairment entirely attributable to the parent”
However 66.8 out of that 247 is nci portion of ppe impairment (167*40%) as indicated in NCI workings. Thus its nci expense rather than Parent’s. Do i sound correct?
Thanks
Owhh sorry for that!
Indirecto Holding Adjustment (when calculating goodwill for SubSub from perspective of Parent)
https://opentuition.com/topic/trailer-june-2013-q1-a-p2/
In the above link you have answered some students’ related questions.
My question is why we remove fair value increase in the consolidated statement?
Yeah!! Thanks!
Ome more que on June 2013 sitting (Trailer):
Why FV increase in Trailer’s investment in Caller (310-280=30) arisen since date of control achieved, has been eliminated in Consolidated statements? They debited retained earnings as well.
No explanation is provided they just state it should be removed.
Hi again
Could you plz explain me the concept of Indirect holding adjustment?
I dont understand why they deduct the NCI portion.
Thanks!!!
Hi again
In the same question. It states that government grant covers both job creation and capital expenses.
Capital exp part i understand. Means renovation of the ppe.
What do they mean by job creation? Why for this portion (half, as question states) we credit Revenue? Is it bcoz of amortizing deferred income against profit? Or is it bcoz wage expense is being reduced?
Thaanks!
I still don’t understand why they have excluded $1 mln from pension expense. $11 mln should have been adjusted in PBT. Why did they adjust only $10 mln?
Also, in PPE part – they have deducted subsidiarry’s portion of addition to PPE. Why? We have to prepare consolidated CF Statement, thus, all non-cash items should be added back/deducted. Why to exclude subsidiary’s portion?
Sorry for annoying.
