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the main issue is non-derivaties and derivaties. where non-derivaties will be financial instrument if the amount receive is variable.
i founded this question in BPP revision kit.
“which causes the interest yield curve to be steepen?
1. increased uncertainty about the future
2. Hightened expectations of the increase in interest rate
3. The expectation of decreses in interest rate happen earlier than previously thought. “will it be possible if my answer stating if the auditor has method to recover the lose of documents, the opinion will be qualified except for… and the marker will accept it though differ from the scheme ?
what about the insufficient and inappropriate if audit evidences of year-end receivable and revenue ? for revenue is $15.6m, r/able is $3.4m & PBT is $2m.
Does it mean that the audit procedure and assessment done will be depend on Materiality level. if its so material, then the risk will be low due to auditor’s assessment ?
may i know the reason why the audit risk and materiality has inverse relationship ?
however. base on past year questions :Bycomb and Plastik. Bycomb’s subsi’s goodwill impairment had minus off from the working of Goodwill Acquisition Statement. but Plastik does not minus off but instead, they minus of from Retained Earning and NCI.
BPP’s question minus the goodwill impairment from the Goodwill Acquisition Statement , RE and NCI.
i mean subsid’s goodwill impairment. cause it confuses me whether do i needa minus the goodwill impairment from my consolidated goodwill.
okay thank you for that ! and also the other one would be impairment of goodwill. when do i need to minus subsi’s impairment of goodwill from the Computation of Goodwill Statement and when i do not ?