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- June 22, 2015 at 2:40 pm #258487
Umair, please do not give orders.
June 22, 2015 at 1:28 pm #258480Thanks for clearing my point also sir 😉
June 17, 2015 at 6:47 pm #257530Its on acca website
gromit will give us suggested answers soonJune 16, 2015 at 6:32 am #257200I do not know why ACCA is not releasing the McQ questions 🙁
June 15, 2015 at 3:26 pm #257018John – if ACCA will publish the Mcq question today.. will you provide us with the answers? 🙂 and if yes, by which day? 🙂
June 10, 2015 at 7:25 pm #256171the paper is out
June 5, 2015 at 4:23 pm #253686anyone got like $ 4,000,000+ NPV?? positive
something around?
June 5, 2015 at 4:21 pm #253680870 $ difference I think
and so
advise to take forward rateJune 5, 2015 at 4:17 pm #253667I got a lot of D’s and A’s in MCQs
June 4, 2015 at 5:31 pm #253211I used
completeness, records, presentationJune 4, 2015 at 5:30 pm #253207Identify and explain 4 assertions for class of transactions
and give substantive procedures for each assertion identified for REVENUE(8 marks)
June 4, 2015 at 4:45 pm #253141my answer for MCQ
1.D
2.D
3.A
4.C
5.C
6.B
7.C
8.B
9.B
10.A
11.B
12.AJune 1, 2015 at 7:05 am #251178thanks sir
and explain me this formula
Shareholders return Re /ke = Dividend + capital gain or loss ÷ share price (previous year)
May 30, 2015 at 5:18 pm #250694Thank you gromit !
May 25, 2015 at 5:50 am #248730thank u sir
one last question on receivable management –
can we get numbers on invoice discounting? or is it just talking bits?May 24, 2015 at 2:33 pm #248424John getting different answers for Joan co 🙁
their net benefit is way smaller
they got $ 11,900
and I got $ 158,320I think they made a mistake by taking 0.01 as interest
May 24, 2015 at 12:02 pm #248393Thank you very much John 😉
May 24, 2015 at 5:32 am #248260Also,
BPP question 30 KXP Co (receivable discount)it says the remaining will not change their behavior (so remaining 20%)
but what is the days to multiply it with?
I’m confused with this bit of the question
otherwise all fine!May 24, 2015 at 5:30 am #248259got it
80% is % of advancement
and 1% is the factor interest
but why he said “above the overdraft rate” ?
is this phrase a distractor? and why?May 20, 2015 at 3:27 am #247277Sir
what do u mean by ” older reduces sharply” ?May 19, 2015 at 3:55 pm #247201It has mentioned in Dec 2013
May 13, 2015 at 11:53 am #245690got it now sir
🙂
thank youMay 13, 2015 at 7:36 am #245639please explain your calcultion sir
i did 500 shares * $1.60 = 800 * $3 = $2400
+
2500 * $4.60
total 13900$May 10, 2015 at 10:47 am #245079Thanks for the clearance John
You’re the best 😉May 10, 2015 at 8:51 am #245064sorry john but its June 2011 question 2 not 2012 my apology
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