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coop

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Active 4 years ago
  • Topics: 29
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Viewing 25 posts - 1 through 25 (of 45 total)
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  • February 20, 2023 at 12:57 pm #679235
    ae424be8dfd0e91352b0e019d69ea7035138ee4694b52f62ca24fb895705cf71 80coop
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    • ☆☆

    …

    February 20, 2023 at 12:54 pm #679234
    ae424be8dfd0e91352b0e019d69ea7035138ee4694b52f62ca24fb895705cf71 80coop
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    • ☆☆

    Hello Dear,
    It is the first question of IFRSDip Dec 2022 exam.
    I found the following:
    – no notional goodwill calculated, when the impairment calculated, the parent goodwill at acquisition added to the net assets of subsidiary.
    – the impairment applied to both parent and NCI.
    I think you agree with me, something is wrong at the answer.
    Otherwise when we do the notional goodwill? and when not?
    and when NCI affected and when not?
    Thanks

    December 6, 2016 at 7:16 pm #354702
    ae424be8dfd0e91352b0e019d69ea7035138ee4694b52f62ca24fb895705cf71 80coop
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    • ☆☆

    The big problem is the time and time, at least half an hour more, to be moderate.

    December 6, 2016 at 5:32 pm #354624
    ae424be8dfd0e91352b0e019d69ea7035138ee4694b52f62ca24fb895705cf71 80coop
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    • ☆☆

    Thank you, Mike

    December 6, 2016 at 4:25 pm #354552
    ae424be8dfd0e91352b0e019d69ea7035138ee4694b52f62ca24fb895705cf71 80coop
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    • ☆☆

    Hello Mike,
    At the exam today, the sales were from the subsidiary to the parent, and there was URP from inventory still kept by the parent.

    So, for the consolidated cost sales: we have to add the URP to the cost sales of the parent, then add the cost sales of the parent, and the sub cost sales time apportinate. ok?

    For the revenue, will the sales will be eliminated separate from the apportion time for the subsidiary revenue, or eliminated first to its revenue then the apportion time will done on the net ?
    thanks

    December 5, 2016 at 7:49 pm #354274
    ae424be8dfd0e91352b0e019d69ea7035138ee4694b52f62ca24fb895705cf71 80coop
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    • ☆☆

    We consider only the post acquisition of 3 months, this what is related to the parent.
    As we need to do the time apportionment only for the joint part of 480,000, but the 60,000 is not joint part, so it will be eliminated first.
    So, we will take out the $60,000 from the $480,000
    and the remaining ($480,000-60,000) = $420,000 , then we will do the time apportionment : 420,000× 3/12 = $105,000

    Sorry, for prolongation

    December 5, 2016 at 5:15 pm #354124
    ae424be8dfd0e91352b0e019d69ea7035138ee4694b52f62ca24fb895705cf71 80coop
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    • ☆☆

    The cost sales amount of $480,000 is including the purchases of $60,000
    therefore, we first eliminate the $60,000, and the remaining will multiplied by 3/12?
    what is the other viewpoint?

    December 5, 2016 at 4:23 pm #354047
    ae424be8dfd0e91352b0e019d69ea7035138ee4694b52f62ca24fb895705cf71 80coop
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    • ☆☆

    OK, thank you

    December 5, 2016 at 2:19 pm #354002
    ae424be8dfd0e91352b0e019d69ea7035138ee4694b52f62ca24fb895705cf71 80coop
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    in other words : the amount of (“20,000 × 3”), why not multiplied by 3/12 the acquisition period of the financial year ?

    December 5, 2016 at 1:48 pm #353998
    ae424be8dfd0e91352b0e019d69ea7035138ee4694b52f62ca24fb895705cf71 80coop
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    • ☆☆

    I mean that :
    (480,000 x 3/12) – (20,000 x 3)

    the above formula should have been :
    (480,000 – “20,000 × 3”) × 3/12

    why haven’t been that way?

    December 4, 2016 at 8:40 pm #353840
    ae424be8dfd0e91352b0e019d69ea7035138ee4694b52f62ca24fb895705cf71 80coop
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    • ☆☆

    Ok, i found number 2 is not requested at the question.

    which of following statements would indicate that a performance obligation is satisfied over a period of time?
    (1) RoPo Co’s performance does not create an asset with an alternative use to RoPo Co
    (2) The customer has significant risks and rewards of ownership of the asset
    A 1 only
    B 2 only
    C Both 1 and 2
    D Neither 1 nor 2

    the answer is A
    the answer is not clear , what does the statement mean ?

    December 4, 2016 at 8:07 pm #353833
    ae424be8dfd0e91352b0e019d69ea7035138ee4694b52f62ca24fb895705cf71 80coop
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    • ☆☆

    OK, this is the head of the question (the question is from BECKER MOCK ONE ) :
    RoPo Co has entered into a number of revenue based contracts during the year ended 31 December 20X6. The following information relating to three contracts is shown below:

    December 3, 2016 at 11:18 pm #353559
    ae424be8dfd0e91352b0e019d69ea7035138ee4694b52f62ca24fb895705cf71 80coop
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    • ☆☆

    Ok, I am sorry, only the first point , whether the NCI affected by OCI ?

    Thanks

    December 3, 2016 at 9:13 pm #353535
    ae424be8dfd0e91352b0e019d69ea7035138ee4694b52f62ca24fb895705cf71 80coop
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    • ☆☆

    You mean the NCI will be affected by both OCI and depreciation ?

    If so, the subsidiary profit at its books should be adjusted first, and that what we agreed shouldn’t be ?

    December 3, 2016 at 9:05 pm #353534
    ae424be8dfd0e91352b0e019d69ea7035138ee4694b52f62ca24fb895705cf71 80coop
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    • ☆☆

    Is the following statement true ?

    an example of faithful representation :

    ” Derecognising factored trade receivables sold without recourse to the seller”

    December 3, 2016 at 8:55 pm #353527
    ae424be8dfd0e91352b0e019d69ea7035138ee4694b52f62ca24fb895705cf71 80coop
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    • ☆☆

    So, the transaction without recourse, should be recognised ?

    December 3, 2016 at 12:10 am #353288
    ae424be8dfd0e91352b0e019d69ea7035138ee4694b52f62ca24fb895705cf71 80coop
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    • ☆☆

    Thank you
    My greetings to you .

    December 1, 2016 at 10:07 pm #353008
    ae424be8dfd0e91352b0e019d69ea7035138ee4694b52f62ca24fb895705cf71 80coop
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    • ☆☆

    “we eliminate only the group share of the UNREALISED profits”

    So,that elimination has an impact on the inventory ? in other meaning, should the inventory

    (as an asset) be reduced by the eliminated part of URP amount ? that for the transaction with associate .

    December 1, 2016 at 4:00 pm #352922
    ae424be8dfd0e91352b0e019d69ea7035138ee4694b52f62ca24fb895705cf71 80coop
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    • ☆☆

    That means, that the investment account includes the goodwill amount ?

    November 30, 2016 at 11:49 pm #352725
    ae424be8dfd0e91352b0e019d69ea7035138ee4694b52f62ca24fb895705cf71 80coop
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    • ☆☆

    Ok, but would you, please, put that explanation in the form of accounting entries or T accounts?, it will be clearer.

    and “Transferred from revaluation reserve (w (iv)) (2,400)”

    “I take this as a transfer TO the revaluation reserve”

    I am confused whether the transfer is from or to revaluation reserve, and do i always have to do that transfer, or only in this case?

    and when eventually the asset will be sold, the revaluation reserve will be sent to (closed at) the retained earnings !! is that right?

    November 29, 2016 at 3:50 pm #352400
    ae424be8dfd0e91352b0e019d69ea7035138ee4694b52f62ca24fb895705cf71 80coop
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    • ☆☆

    Thanks for the clarification
    Thank you

    November 29, 2016 at 2:08 pm #352388
    ae424be8dfd0e91352b0e019d69ea7035138ee4694b52f62ca24fb895705cf71 80coop
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    • ☆☆

    may be due to the holding paid for that goodwill before, therefore, it is deducted from the sales proceeds ?

    November 29, 2016 at 1:56 pm #352387
    ae424be8dfd0e91352b0e019d69ea7035138ee4694b52f62ca24fb895705cf71 80coop
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    • ☆☆

    First,I apologize

    i repeated the question to get the quicker response , as the exam time is very closed .

    But you were quicker than i expected.

    About the answer, that is clear now for the NCI.
    But, for the goodwill !!

    November 26, 2016 at 12:24 pm #351622
    ae424be8dfd0e91352b0e019d69ea7035138ee4694b52f62ca24fb895705cf71 80coop
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    • ☆☆

    OK, that is good.

    Thank you

    November 26, 2016 at 11:13 am #351607
    ae424be8dfd0e91352b0e019d69ea7035138ee4694b52f62ca24fb895705cf71 80coop
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    • ☆☆

    I am sorry, please ignore the question

    Thanks

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