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- May 30, 2018 at 7:05 pm #454930
Thank you John ???
August 10, 2017 at 5:20 pm #401385Thank you John! Time to give the brain a rest! Soooooo obvious thank you sorry ?
August 10, 2017 at 4:40 pm #401371Sorry this is the grams per beta per cake/cookie/shake
December 8, 2016 at 11:05 pm #362479Thank You John, sorry was a spelling error meant to say calcs not calls.
December 8, 2016 at 8:31 am #362169Thank you
June 12, 2016 at 10:09 am #322530I got a loss too and posted it straight to the p&l
June 4, 2016 at 7:59 pm #319443Ahhhhh pennies dropped thank you I totally understand it! No need for net assets working because their is negative goodwill! Marvellous sorry for being daft lol thank you again
June 4, 2016 at 7:14 pm #319434Totally understand this but my working 2 was wrong compared to the answer I’ve got the below:
At acquisition At reporting date
SC. 20000. 20000
RE. 18000. 24000FV Adj.
Pl (2000). (2000)
G 12000. 12000
Inv. 1000. 900
Depr. 500
Depr. (1200)
Gwill. (3000)49000. 51200. Post acqui profit 2200 ans is 3200
Where am I going wrong?
June 4, 2016 at 6:53 pm #319401Hi Mike,
Think you’ve just answered this below, someone else was stuck on it too! Thank you and yes it’s posted to w2 as it affects the post acq profits!
Thank you
June 13, 2014 at 3:47 pm #176469hehehehe ok now that explains it thank you it is now 4954 wow thats alot.
June 12, 2014 at 2:21 pm #176225Thanks to John for showing us the video for the Minimax. Maximin question on the 6 possible outcomes it sounded straight forward and worked it out like how John showed us in his lectures….. i did it as a column and not a payoff table or decision tree like most did… I hope this is the correct way….
June 2, 2014 at 3:18 pm #172697Maybe you will post them 🙂 hehehe thank you again, so much of your material made sense…
June 2, 2014 at 3:12 pm #172682yippppeeee happy about that, cannot wait to see the answers hehehe.
Thanks you for everything John and assisting us…..
June 1, 2014 at 7:51 pm #172465Thank you for this… i got confused with the figures from the shadow prices.
June 1, 2014 at 7:06 pm #172445Great thank you for this, thank you very much.
June 1, 2014 at 2:06 pm #172349Sorry the balance of the adverse variances is 204236 but on the answers its 192776 the difference being this 11460. Hope im not losing the plot
May 28, 2014 at 5:02 pm #171464Thank you very much this is great.
May 27, 2014 at 9:28 pm #171300awww thank you anyway….. no problem.
May 27, 2014 at 9:27 pm #171298Thank you for this.
May 26, 2014 at 5:48 pm #170992John has anyone ever told you that you a star!!!…. (claps hands)…. you make difficult things easy….. thank you…..
May 25, 2014 at 5:52 pm #170777sorry and thank you all makes sense
May 25, 2014 at 4:46 pm #170760and how about year 2012? how did they get that percentage of 33.518%
May 25, 2014 at 4:43 pm #170759Thank you very much for this 🙂 yipppeeee….
May 25, 2014 at 3:13 pm #170715sorry another question q1 december 2008 paper on the gross profit figure for years 2011 and 2012 i worked this as 40-5 x $248292 = $86902 the answer is $91476 how did they get this figure thought the gross profit is 40% and reduced with the sales price which was 5%?
May 25, 2014 at 2:44 pm #170702Thank you John, this is the way I worked the cost of sales out but they got $18000 where did they randomly get the $18000 from? not sure why im bothered but im just trying to figure out where the $18000 is coming from hehehehe sorry
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