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asadrana

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Viewing 10 posts - 1 through 10 (of 10 total)

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May 7, 2015 at 12:02 am #244462
asadrana
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- Topics: 15
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Kaplan did not explain it they just solved it in answer as i did above.
May 5, 2015 at 2:54 am #244093
asadrana
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- Topics: 15
- Replies: 10
Thanx Mike…,
October 14, 2014 at 12:05 am #204373
asadrana
Member
- Topics: 15
- Replies: 10
Thanx to all of you
October 1, 2014 at 10:12 pm #203152
asadrana
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- Topics: 15
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Yes
Thanx Mike… 🙂
September 30, 2014 at 12:57 am #202215
asadrana
Member
- Topics: 15
- Replies: 10
If u dnt mind then yes 🙂
September 28, 2014 at 11:30 pm #202085
asadrana
Member
- Topics: 15
- Replies: 10
Give me explanation through standards …,,
Thanx
September 28, 2014 at 11:29 pm #202084
asadrana
Member
- Topics: 15
- Replies: 10
I mean to ask you that why M co use 2.5% instead of 3%….????
September 28, 2014 at 11:26 pm #202083
asadrana
Member
- Topics: 15
- Replies: 10
Thanx Mike
September 25, 2014 at 11:19 pm #196461
asadrana
Member
- Topics: 15
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Mike i need some more detail
actuarial loss arise when there is actual obligation is more than expected.so if the resulting difference is, say $22m.why we did not add in opening obligation of $200m rather than add in fv of asset $250m.
September 25, 2014 at 10:30 pm #196460
asadrana
Member
- Topics: 15
- Replies: 10
Thanx….,, MikeLittle
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Viewing 10 posts - 1 through 10 (of 10 total)