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- December 8, 2020 at 9:05 am #598329
ROMM
1) listed
2) specific dislosures
3) Goodwill- initial mesurement
4) goodwill -subsequent measurement
5) Bank loan- measurement
6) bank loan – disclosure
7) Advertising expenseMarch 11, 2016 at 4:35 pm #305659Guys my approach to pricing was went over all the price factors 1)pricing objectives 2) competitors 3) customers/demand 4) cost 5) controls. Anyone agrees to this?
December 11, 2015 at 9:16 pm #291221With the wacc as i mentioned depends on the rates used to calculate the positive and negative value to use in the IRR calculation of the loan
December 11, 2015 at 9:14 pm #291219Guys the leading was correct but you all forgot to multiple by the interest rate as it specifically mentioned in the question that it would borrow the money, thus making forward as the cheapest hedging method
December 11, 2015 at 7:10 pm #291171Guys the wacc with the introduction od the loan is lower , however the wacc rates differ , other say 10sh ans others 12ish. It all depends on the rates used to find the irr of the loan
December 11, 2015 at 5:02 pm #291094Well ive put the book value there ;). I think am wrong
December 11, 2015 at 4:28 pm #291057Well in the npv calculation i worked with contribution as you couls deduct the variable cost from selling price and the inflate by4.7%
June 5, 2015 at 4:32 pm #253702For the company it would cost over a million to do it.messed up the finance saving of the factor though. Took the receivables the company x 80 x 9 and x20 x 7
June 5, 2015 at 4:29 pm #253697Sensitinity analysis wrote the definition and coupe of point on uncertainty and risk
June 5, 2015 at 4:26 pm #253692Npv 40008 somewhere round there positive
June 5, 2015 at 4:22 pm #253683The forward was 210 something snd the money was a little higher so beneficial option was the forward
June 5, 2015 at 4:20 pm #253679Question . Was it 35% probability chance? Why not the 30 which was 50%?
June 5, 2015 at 4:09 pm #253658What value did tou use for the sales price in the nov calculation?
December 9, 2014 at 10:26 am #219636used 8 as interest and discount rate and the conversion value of 131..11 . gave me a mv of 118 something
December 9, 2014 at 10:25 am #219634how on earth di you get the 111,98 for the market value?
what did you use as the discount rate? and what was the interest figure>?December 8, 2014 at 5:21 pm #219465Guys if you inflate the selling price variable and fixedso gives the figures shown on the original evaluation. So where should you inflate exactly?the problem.was with the interest and the depreciation. Anyone agreeing on any of this?
December 7, 2014 at 7:53 pm #219205And rounding wacc i got 10.4
December 7, 2014 at 7:52 pm #219204Oups cost of equity of 10.9
December 7, 2014 at 7:50 pm #219203Correct! You multiply the risk premium with the beta factor which gave a cost of capital of 10.9 if i remember correctly
December 7, 2014 at 7:01 pm #219191No.idea actually as i talk a little about time in that they will go for the rights issue of they need now for liquidity problems, a company will go for equity finance if the share prices are high and of course financial gearing id also a reason for equity finance.
December 7, 2014 at 6:17 pm #219178Guys in question 5 part about rights issue. Did anyone talk about, time, gearing, and share prices? 🙁
December 7, 2014 at 7:56 am #219055Capital allowances were claimed at the end of year 4
December 7, 2014 at 7:54 am #219054Guys the inflation rate was per year not in current price terms. So you inflate from year 2 not 1. If it was at current price then t1 would have been correct
December 6, 2014 at 4:32 pm #218940Depreciation? What depreciation are you talking about. You calculate capital allowances for that
December 6, 2014 at 4:29 pm #218939If i remember correctly t2 to t4 were inflated correctly. t1 should not have been inflated and second of all interest is never included in the calculation of he npv cause it is included in he cost of capital
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