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- April 17, 2021 at 12:03 pm #618024
Interested as well Please add me too
my email is adnantpwl879@gmail.com
September 21, 2017 at 9:37 am #408171Thanks sir I got
So basically sir if irr is rate at which npv is 0So here if irr > cost of capital means inflow at irr rate covers outflow
And if cost of capital is more than irr means negative npv is being produced
Right sirAugust 26, 2017 at 9:49 am #403629its said in sale and lease back that if it qualifies as sale then seller – lessee must measure the right of use asset as a proportion of the previous carrying amount
August 26, 2017 at 7:43 am #403594defered expenditure incurred was 1200
1000 given in fig is after deducting amortization therefore total cost incurred was 1200
August 26, 2017 at 7:39 am #403593pls help me on my post pls
August 25, 2017 at 2:41 pm #403499pls help
April 16, 2017 at 5:49 am #381468thank you sir
April 13, 2017 at 6:39 pm #381248sir i have calculated the trading loss it is 15250 ie ( 11000loss + 4250 OVER LAP)
and terminal loss is 10096
sir in institute teacher claimed relief against chargeable gains ie she got 46100 of chargeable gains and used trading loss against it but in kaplan they got relief from total income than chargeable gain but in chargeable gain here again they used 35000-31765 here 31765 is benefit in the band of 32000 so coming to 35000-31765 its 3235
so after utilising 11235 income of 15/16 against loss of 15250 the remaining loss of 4215 was used against 3235sir thats y am confused . Two answers are conflicting
April 12, 2017 at 3:37 pm #381041sir actually i dont understand answer for this in kaplan sir pls help me out with this question
April 12, 2017 at 3:32 pm #381040sir what is the trading loss of 15250 is set of against chargeable gains then taxable income
November 5, 2016 at 8:23 am #347527it was good bt got less marks didnt check the paper again may be thats y
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