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Thanks sir I got
So basically sir if irr is rate at which npv is 0
So here if irr > cost of capital means inflow at irr rate covers outflow
And if cost of capital is more than irr means negative npv is being produced
Right sir
its said in sale and lease back that if it qualifies as sale then seller – lessee must measure the right of use asset as a proportion of the previous carrying amount
defered expenditure incurred was 1200
1000 given in fig is after deducting amortization therefore total cost incurred was 1200
pls help me on my post pls
pls help
thank you sir
sir i have calculated the trading loss it is 15250 ie ( 11000loss + 4250 OVER LAP)
and terminal loss is 10096
sir in institute teacher claimed relief against chargeable gains ie she got 46100 of chargeable gains and used trading loss against it but in kaplan they got relief from total income than chargeable gain but in chargeable gain here again they used 35000-31765 here 31765 is benefit in the band of 32000 so coming to 35000-31765 its 3235
so after utilising 11235 income of 15/16 against loss of 15250 the remaining loss of 4215 was used against 3235
sir thats y am confused . Two answers are conflicting
sir actually i dont understand answer for this in kaplan sir pls help me out with this question
sir what is the trading loss of 15250 is set of against chargeable gains then taxable income
it was good bt got less marks didnt check the paper again may be thats y
