Chapter 5 - Capital Allowances - ACCA Taxation (TX-UK) lectures
YouTube video
YouTube video
YouTube video
YouTube video
13 Comments
C
Chris·
Hello. I have a question. It is repeatedly said, "Show your workings". What if I show my workings in the formula bar, and not in the actual cell? (talking about number workings only) If I include a note for the examiner saying, "All workings shown in the formula bar", will that still count? Will I still get marks?
Someone who has cleared the TX (UK) exam, please clear this for me. Thanks.
A
Ameena·
I think it would be better to show the workings in the cells itself instead of showing them in the formula bar.
L
Louise·
Hi,
Just wondering why in illustration 2 the buyer would claim 3% on the original cost and not the cost he has purchased for less land?
Thanks in advance.
F
Fatima·
Please also give lecture on advance taxation acca
D
DilanSupporter·
Can someone please explain me how did the (15/12) figure came in the answer of the motor car WDA in practice question 11 (Grace) ?
Thank you
N
Nick·
On example 6, the electric car is not stated as "new", yet was given the FYA, why?
D
Deborah·
Hello I have a question, don't we use WDA rates when the asset is going to be disposed off? Because I notice she doesn't use WDA rates when wanting to dispose the asset
D
Deborah·
Please I have a question, don't we use WDA rates when the asset is going to be disposed off? Because I notice she doesn't use WDA rates when wanting to dispose the asset
A
Aziz·
Hi, thank you very much for the lectures. Can I please check why we only take 70% for the allowance in Example 2?
A
Aziz·
Sorry ignore this - realised the cars are used for business purposes 70% of the time
B
Benhur·
Thanks for the lectures.On the lecture notes it is stated that a balancing adjustment will be made on the main or special pool on cessation of trade but in example 4 their is no mention of cessation but their is a balancing adjustment.
Can you please clarify on that?
I
incepaul·
Because the disposal proceeds exceeded the TWDV i.e. the assets had been over relieved for tax purposes. therefore a balancing charge arises.
Someone who has cleared the TX (UK) exam, please clear this for me. Thanks.
Just wondering why in illustration 2 the buyer would claim 3% on the original cost and not the cost he has purchased for less land?
Thanks in advance.
Thank you
Can you please clarify on that?