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March 26, 2020 at 10:02 am
hi question concerning the debentures. after doing the calculation im getting $1049510 as c/d in the 4th year. shouldnt be nil at the end of the year?? can you clarify please thank you
May 18, 2020 at 1:31 pm
I think what you missed out in the calculation is that you didn’t factor into the calculation the redemption value of $1,050,000. If this is factored in you’ll probably be getting nil balance, subject to rounding errors.
July 14, 2020 at 11:04 pm
No. Why would it be zero when you own the asset? It should be close to 1050,000(Which you already had).
July 15, 2020 at 3:07 pm
A light update to my post earlier, yes the balance at end of year four after the debt is repaid should be zero. Norman have to repay the capital + 5% premium.
March 5, 2019 at 1:23 pm
In example 2, the last financial asset, the interest income on the bond (5.71%), is this paid by the bond issuer or paid by Norman who bought the bond?
November 20, 2019 at 7:31 pm
That’s interest income receivable from the bond issuer. Then an asset in the book of Norman and liability in the books of the bond issuer.
July 14, 2020 at 11:06 pm
This is the effective rate of interest which is rate of return.
February 23, 2019 at 9:10 pm
isn’t the outflow in the cash flow statement only if it was paid in cash or r u trying to make the point that this is under investing activities?
August 18, 2019 at 5:29 pm
Do we show the coupon rate intrest and the effective rate intrest in the SCF?
February 11, 2019 at 12:04 pm
Sir, is there any lecture that will be going to upload sooner or later on the impairment of financial assets ?
February 10, 2019 at 7:23 pm
February 10, 2019 at 10:49 pm
August 24, 2018 at 2:28 pm
For example 2 part A – How did you determine that the default classification was FVTPL ?
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