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Why we did not apportion Maul revenues for 80%, but took whole 100%? How to know when apportion figures in FS for % owned and when not?
Nice Star wars Reference :p
At 16:45 you’ve put 100 for the Parent and 50 for the subsidiary – but total still says 140. I’m assuming the answer is 150.
Also – the question does say ‘Assume that profits accrue evenly during the year’. Are revaluation gains treated as profits, and therefore should that 50 also be accrued evenly during the year? Or is the revaluation treated as a single event, being applied fully at the time of revaluation?
How come the £20 million that Vader sold to Maul doesn’t get taken off in part f – NCI in PAT of Maul? I thought we would need to remove this from cost of sales, which would then reduce PAT? Thank you for any answers 🙂
I meant increase* PAT ?
I think the £20m only gets taken off when its the subsidiary (Maul) that sells to parent (Vader). In this case its the parent selling to subsidiary
Inter company sales are added to group COS not individual S Co (seperate entity concept). Therefore, it doesn’t affect NCI share of S CO PAT
Why was the whole impairment amount of 6 subtracted first from Sub’s PAT ? Instead of just getting the NCI’s share of 6 , then subtract it from PAT??
We deduct 100% of impairment from the subsidiary. only at the end after calculating the PAT and TCI do we separate out the NCI portion
Can you please give me the answer for example no 3.
Is this impairment, impairment of goodwill or any impairment? And if it is any impairment when NCI is measured at FV, NCI must take its share of the impairment of any asset?
Hi when do we put impairment in P’ s collumn? Can you provide explanation please.
Hi,
If the goodwill is measured using the proportionate share method then we would include the impairment in P’s column so that the NCI does not get their share of it.
Thanks