Because the grant $70,000 has been credited to the asset account $150,000, depreciation for 3 years has been calculated on that net figure of $80,000
So depreciation for 3 years has been charged against the retained earnings in the aggregate sum of 3 years @ $8,000 = $24,000
If no grant had been received, depreciation for 3 years calculated at 10% on $150,000 would have been 3 * $15,000 = $45,000
But now it seems that the grant is repayable 馃檨
So what would the situation have been if we had never received that grant?
Asset account would show $150,000 Accumulated Depreciation account would show $45,000, and Retained Earnings would have been reduced by an additional $21,000 (ie $45,000 – $24,000)
To arrive at the position where we should have been where no grant had been received, we need to:
Dr Asset account $70,000 Cr Accumulated Depreciation account $21,000 Dr Retained Earnings $21,000 and Cr Cash $70,000
Hi MikeLittle, According to [IAS 20.32], “If a grant becomes repayable, it should be treated as a change in estimate.” and “Where the original grant related to an asset, the repayment should be treated as increasing the carrying amount of the asset”. If you Dr Asset account $70,000, it means you increase the cost (the historical cost) of the asset?? I think it should be: Debit carrying amount of asset 49.000 and no RE adjustments cuz this is a change in estimate? Thank you so much and look forward to receiving reply from you!
Good Day Sir could you please explain the Question no 4 of the test above . I don’t understand the depreciation and Retained Earnings part. please explain ASAP….
Ranjan879 says
All options in q1 seem to be correct, in absence of any specifications relating to the nature of the grant, as is the case with the question.
Rubyta says
Hi Sir, I think question 4 should be :
Debit carrying amount of asset 49.000
Debit depreciation expense : 21.000
Credit liability : 70.000
This would be a change in accounting estimate (IAS 8) and so we do not change past periods just the current one.
Vamshisai says
Exactly dude, can u just tell me is that the answer
mumuaz says
would u please explain question no. 3 ..
MikeLittle says
Because the grant $70,000 has been credited to the asset account $150,000, depreciation for 3 years has been calculated on that net figure of $80,000
So depreciation for 3 years has been charged against the retained earnings in the aggregate sum of 3 years @ $8,000 = $24,000
If no grant had been received, depreciation for 3 years calculated at 10% on $150,000 would have been 3 * $15,000 = $45,000
But now it seems that the grant is repayable 馃檨
So what would the situation have been if we had never received that grant?
Asset account would show $150,000
Accumulated Depreciation account would show $45,000, and
Retained Earnings would have been reduced by an additional $21,000 (ie $45,000 – $24,000)
To arrive at the position where we should have been where no grant had been received, we need to:
Dr Asset account $70,000
Cr Accumulated Depreciation account $21,000
Dr Retained Earnings $21,000 and
Cr Cash $70,000
Does that make it any clearer?
farahdania says
Very helpful, thanks!
lphuonga says
Hi MikeLittle,
According to [IAS 20.32], “If a grant becomes repayable, it should be treated as a change in estimate.” and “Where the original grant related to an asset, the repayment should be treated as increasing the carrying amount of the asset”. If you Dr Asset account $70,000, it means you increase the cost (the historical cost) of the asset?? I think it should be: Debit carrying amount of asset 49.000 and no RE adjustments cuz this is a change in estimate?
Thank you so much and look forward to receiving reply from you!
enroluniabroad says
Good Day Sir
could you please explain the Question no 4 of the test above .
I don’t understand the depreciation and Retained Earnings part.
please explain ASAP….
many thanks
Mehreen