Why is the cashflow table set up to the 4th year when the asset was disposed of in year 3, and why do we make the inflows in the 4th year relevant to the decision making, or is the idea to capture all the CFs in year 3, regardless of the year they materialise?
Thanks for the good job!
E
Eldor·
Hi, has the spreadsheet in CBE exam formula XNPV? And if so, what if we calculate the NPV in spreadsheet and take a bit different (more exact) result? Or are we expected to use tables for calculation of NPV, but do not use formulas? Thank you for informative lecture btw:)
Z
Zunaib Khan·
NPV in the answer in notes i think is wrong, i don't know but if i put all values in excel and calculate it with formula it gives me 7101.83= 7102.
can you please confirm this, because even in notes its showing wrong value.
Thanks for the lectures.
J
John MoffatTutor·
You are correct - thank you. I will have it corrected :-)
E
ewurefua·
Hi Sir, please i need a little clarification. In calculating the tax savings, why isn't the corporation tax percentage calculated on the 7,500 but on the capital allowance in order to get the savings?
J
John MoffatTutor·
Because it is only the capital allowances (the tax allowable depreciation) that reduces the taxable profit each year and therefore saves tax. This is a tax rule from Paper TX.
F
Fardhan·
Hi
I have a doubt. In calculating the 3rd years balancing charge, since we selling the machine at end of the year don't we need to calculate the NBV of machine at the end of the year. and if so, the balancing charge would go up. Am i right?
J
John MoffatTutor·
They rule I work through in the lecture is the correct tax rule in that there is no writing down alliance in the last year, just the balancing charge or allowance. If you do put a writing down allowance in the final year, the balancing charge or allowance will change but the net affect will end up being exactly the same so it doesn't really matter in the exam.
W
Wael·
Hello John,
Thanks for these beneficial lectures.
While solving using the BPP practice and revision kit to prepare evaluations / calculate NPV, I noticed that when we are dealing with depreciation, they are not including the depreciation expense in the calculations (as this is important to calculate correct income tax). If they say it is included in variable/fixed costs, then it(depreciation expense) should be added back to the net cash flow as this is a non-cash item. I am really confused, am I missing anything here?
Ref.: Example No. 163 Uftin Co (December 2014, amended; page 60).
Thanks in advance.
J
John MoffatTutor·
Please ask this question in the Ask the Tutor Forum and not as a comment on a lecture.
V
valentini·
Hi John, I am trying to watch the lecture but it is saying is not available. Can you please advice how I can watch it? Thanks
J
John MoffatTutor·
The lecture is working fine. If you are still having problems then please ask in the 'technical problems' forum and admin will try and help you.https://opentuition.com/forum/technical-problems/
O
opentuition_teamAdmin·
it has been fixed
T
Toby·
Thank you very much for the lectures John - very clear explanations
J
John MoffatTutor·
Thank you for your comment :-)
R
Robert·
Wasn't the net cash flow in year 3 supposed to be 13,463? 8,000-2100+563+6000+1000
K
Kimberley·
i got the same!
J
John MoffatTutor·
Yes - my mistake (but the printed answer in the notes is correct :-) )
D
dar·
Hi, why do we have to do 30% of the capital allowance, is the whole of the capital allowance not allowed?
J
John MoffatTutor·
The whole amount is allowed, but with tax at 30% the tax saving is 30%.
E
Ewelina·
Thank you Sir for great lecture, I was reading it in Study Text but I got impression it's difficult to remember. Now, after watching the lecture all makes sense. Thanks to your lectures I have already scored 82 in PM, now I hope to pass FM :)
J
John MoffatTutor·
Thank you for your comment, and congratulations on passing Paper PM with such a good mark :-)
J
JojoBeat·
Hi Sir, when do we use the post tax cost of borrowing instead of pre tax?
J
John MoffatTutor·
We always use the post-tax cost of borrowing when calculating the WACC for the purpose of appraising projects.
(The pre-tax cost is really the rate of return demanded by investors and that is relevant when calculating the market value of debt borrowing.)
J
JojoBeat·
Hi Sir, if so happens there is no scrap value, will there be a balancing charge/allowance? Or do we just count the final year as tax allowable depreciation?
J
John MoffatTutor·
The rule does not change, which means that there will be a balancing allowance in the final year of the amount of the tax written down value.
J
JojoBeat·
Hi Sir, wouldn’t it make more sense to take cash flow minus depreciation and get the taxable profit then charge tax on that?
J
John MoffatTutor·
By all means do that if you want, but it then means either showing the tax calculation as separate workings or remembering to add back the depreciation after calculating the tax because the depreciation is not a cash flow.
T
Timothy·
Or more to the point, sir
How do we calculate the balancing charge or balancing allowance where tax is paid in the year where profit is made?
J
John MoffatTutor·
The balancing charge or allowance is calculated in the same way regardless of when the tax is paid. If the tax is paid in the same year then the tax saving or extra cost is in the same year. If tax is paid in the following year then the tax saving or extra cost is in the following year.
T
Timothy·
Oh! Thank you so so much, sir
J
John MoffatTutor·
You are welcome :-)
T
Timothy·
Hi John,
Please how do we calculate the total tax savings in the year of disposal of the asset where the tax is paid in the year in which profit is made?
E
Emmanuel Mashaya·
Hi there again John.
I'm sorry I might be leaving a comment on almost every lecture or practice tests.
This time around I want to ask if I can calculate Capital Allowances and deduct them within the operating profits and then add them back (as they are not really cash items) after calculating the tax charge for the year?
NB : in those years where if we deduct Capital Allowances and end up with Negative before tax Operating Cashflows which if we apply a tax rate will give us a relief to the subsequent taxable Operating Cashflows
Can we do our appraisals with tax relief or we have to calculate the 'tax saving/benefit' for every appraisal question?
J
John MoffatTutor·
Yes, you can calculate the capital allowances, deduct them from the operating profit, then calculate the tax and then add back the capital allowances. It gives the same result.
If there was a tax loss the the tax is zero and the loss is carried forward to reduce the following years tax. However this doesn't happen in Paper FM (it happens occasionally in Paper AFM).
E
Emmanuel Mashaya·
Awesome ,it just that i remembered the Tax Relief from Trading losses from my earlier Tax exam and had imagined such a scenario where there will be Trading losses in a DCF question
Thank you anyways for the clarity.
much appreciated
E
Emmanuel Mashaya·
PS : I personally think its much easier to include the Capital Allowances within the Operating cashflows and then workout the tax and then Add back the Capital Allowances .
This way , i think it will be much clear ti see how much we owe the Tax Authorities in a given trading period.
S
samrap23·
Hello Sir, seems there is an error in the net cash for year 4. its supposed to be13,463 and not the 13,163 in the video.
S
samrap23·
3rd year i mean.
J
John MoffatTutor·
Yes it should be 13463 (as is printed in the answer in the lecture notes).
N
Nikita·
Hello Sir,
I didnt understand the part where we have calculate the capital allowance how did you get the 4,000 amount , the total is 4375 quite now sure where did 4000 came from ?
J
John MoffatTutor·
I do not know where you are getting 4375 from. The allowances are 2,500, 1875, and (385), which is a total of 4,000 (although the total is not relevant but it must be the difference between the cost and the scrap proceeds (10,000 - 6,000) as per normal tax rules).
C
chalesakunda·
#Scrap value and not residue value
U
udit ganglani·
Sir since we have used the machine because if we do for the third year also (for whole year) and it is sold at the end of the year then why we have not reduced the capital allowance from it and if we do the value of machine at the end of the third year will be $4219 and then we should
calculate the surplus we earned after selling the machine at the end of third year that is $1781 (6000 - 4219) and on this amount may be we should calculate the balancing charge of $534.3 (1781*30%).
So what I am trying to say is that why we have not reduced capital allowance of 25% from the value of machine at the beginning of third year that is $5625 ?
K
kaadence·
Sir I do not understand why the 240 is deducted from 1000 instead of 800. I thought since 200 of cap allowances is already taken away that only the 800 is taxed. Kindly explain.
J
John MoffatTutor·
The 200 is not a cash flow, it is only relevant for calculating the tax.
The tax is calculated on the 800 which is why the tax is 240.
K
kaadence·
Please bear with me.
why 1000-240=760? and not 800-240=560?
J
John MoffatTutor·
For NPV calculations we need the cash flows. Only 800 is taxed which is why the tax is calculated on 800. But 800 is not a cash flow, it is the profit. The depreciation is not a cash flow - the cash flow is 1,000. Think back to statements of cash flows from Paper FA (was F3) or whatever exempted you from that exam.
M
Mohamed·
Hi,
I think year 3 is $13,463
C
Chantal·
that is what I got
J
John MoffatTutor·
Yes it should be 13463 (as is printed in the answer in the lecture notes).
P
PratibhaSupporter·
Hi Sir
Why have we taken the 4th year balances in consideration while calculating the NPV. Because I clearly remember in the past, we have ignored the other periods balances even if they were a part of the periods which are asked in the question.
J
John MoffatTutor·
Tax is payable 1 year in arrears and therefore there are tax flows in 4 years time. We never ignore any periods in which there are cash flows!
L
lyla·
Hi Sir,
In example 4, if the tax-allowable depreciation on a straight line basis over the three year, the allowance balance will be zero at the end of the year 3, then the scrape value 6000 is taxable which will be a cash outflow at year 3?
J
John MoffatTutor·
If it was straight line depreciation then there would be a balance charge in the third year which would give rise to a tax outlaw one year later i.e. time 4.
A
Ashish·
Hello sir,
Plz tell me how to calculate present value?
A
Ashish·
I got it, sir ?
J
John MoffatTutor·
I am pleased you have got it :-)
J
John MoffatTutor·
You are welcome :-)
V
Vishesh·
Hey John,
Are there marks to show the working of tax saving on capital allowances? As it's a bit hard to do the working on excel. Could I do it in rough and just enter the values?
J
John MoffatTutor·
You could, and would still get the marks if your figures were correct.
However it is better to have the workings in the spreadsheet because if you make a mistake you still get marks for your approach (whereas if you have just typed in the figures and they are wrong, then you get zero for that bit).
V
Vishesh·
Thank you John :)
J
John MoffatTutor·
You are welcome :-)
F
faith20ul19·
Please note that the net cash flow for year 3 should have been 13,463 instead of 13,163 as per presentation.
J
John MoffatTutor·
Thank you - I will have it corrected :-(
F
faith20ul19·
This video lecture was explicit. Thank you Mr Moffat
J
John MoffatTutor·
Thank you for the comment :-)
J
jacksonn14·
Hello,
Hows comes we didn't get the $1,000 working capital back at the end of the project?
Thanks
J
John MoffatTutor·
But we do!!!
It is an inflow at time 3 - the end of the project.
I suggest that you watch the lecture again :-)
J
jacksonn14·
Apologies, Im an idiot haha
J
John MoffatTutor·
No problem :-)
K
keston·
How to deal with taxable losses if you use TAD instead tax relief ? Many answers to exam type questions deduct TAD & add it back but you may make a taxable loss becasue TAD so high
J
John MoffatTutor·
In Paper FM we always assume that the company is already making sufficient profits and paying tax. Therefore a 'loss' from the new project simply reduces the existing profit and therefore saves tax for the company - there is no tax loss.
J
Jon·
Hello,
I hope this is not a silly question. How come the scrap/sale of the asset does not go in the cash flows subject to tax?
J
John MoffatTutor·
If you look at the calculation of the capital allowances, you will see that that is where the sale proceeds of the asset are dealt with.
S
Shane·
Hi John,
Im hoping you are well!
I have worked out Example 4 and seem to have the correct flows and allowances of what you have wrote down but when i add all the net present values up I get to a total of $7101.84 or $7102 rounded up but in the lecture you have $6877 & the answers in the notes is $6695. Is there something I'm doing wrong?
I look forward to your reply.
R
ronie753·
Dear shanekenno
No! there is nothing wrong you did.
Total Net Cash Flows for 3rd year $ 13463 but mistakenly written as $13163.
Why is the cashflow table set up to the 4th year when the asset was disposed of in year 3, and why do we make the inflows in the 4th year relevant to the decision making, or is the idea to capture all the CFs in year 3, regardless of the year they materialise?
Thanks for the good job!
can you please confirm this, because even in notes its showing wrong value.
Thanks for the lectures.
I have a doubt. In calculating the 3rd years balancing charge, since we selling the machine at end of the year don't we need to calculate the NBV of machine at the end of the year. and if so, the balancing charge would go up. Am i right?
Thanks for these beneficial lectures.
While solving using the BPP practice and revision kit to prepare evaluations / calculate NPV, I noticed that when we are dealing with depreciation, they are not including the depreciation expense in the calculations (as this is important to calculate correct income tax). If they say it is included in variable/fixed costs, then it(depreciation expense) should be added back to the net cash flow as this is a non-cash item. I am really confused, am I missing anything here?
Ref.: Example No. 163 Uftin Co (December 2014, amended; page 60).
Thanks in advance.
(The pre-tax cost is really the rate of return demanded by investors and that is relevant when calculating the market value of debt borrowing.)
How do we calculate the balancing charge or balancing allowance where tax is paid in the year where profit is made?
Please how do we calculate the total tax savings in the year of disposal of the asset where the tax is paid in the year in which profit is made?
I'm sorry I might be leaving a comment on almost every lecture or practice tests.
This time around I want to ask if I can calculate Capital Allowances and deduct them within the operating profits and then add them back (as they are not really cash items) after calculating the tax charge for the year?
NB : in those years where if we deduct Capital Allowances and end up with Negative before tax Operating Cashflows which if we apply a tax rate will give us a relief to the subsequent taxable Operating Cashflows
Can we do our appraisals with tax relief or we have to calculate the 'tax saving/benefit' for every appraisal question?
If there was a tax loss the the tax is zero and the loss is carried forward to reduce the following years tax. However this doesn't happen in Paper FM (it happens occasionally in Paper AFM).
Thank you anyways for the clarity.
much appreciated
This way , i think it will be much clear ti see how much we owe the Tax Authorities in a given trading period.
I didnt understand the part where we have calculate the capital allowance how did you get the 4,000 amount , the total is 4375 quite now sure where did 4000 came from ?
calculate the surplus we earned after selling the machine at the end of third year that is $1781 (6000 - 4219) and on this amount may be we should calculate the balancing charge of $534.3 (1781*30%).
So what I am trying to say is that why we have not reduced capital allowance of 25% from the value of machine at the beginning of third year that is $5625 ?
The tax is calculated on the 800 which is why the tax is 240.
why 1000-240=760? and not 800-240=560?
I think year 3 is $13,463
Why have we taken the 4th year balances in consideration while calculating the NPV. Because I clearly remember in the past, we have ignored the other periods balances even if they were a part of the periods which are asked in the question.
In example 4, if the tax-allowable depreciation on a straight line basis over the three year, the allowance balance will be zero at the end of the year 3, then the scrape value 6000 is taxable which will be a cash outflow at year 3?
Plz tell me how to calculate present value?
Are there marks to show the working of tax saving on capital allowances? As it's a bit hard to do the working on excel. Could I do it in rough and just enter the values?
However it is better to have the workings in the spreadsheet because if you make a mistake you still get marks for your approach (whereas if you have just typed in the figures and they are wrong, then you get zero for that bit).
Hows comes we didn't get the $1,000 working capital back at the end of the project?
Thanks
It is an inflow at time 3 - the end of the project.
I suggest that you watch the lecture again :-)
I hope this is not a silly question. How come the scrap/sale of the asset does not go in the cash flows subject to tax?
Im hoping you are well!
I have worked out Example 4 and seem to have the correct flows and allowances of what you have wrote down but when i add all the net present values up I get to a total of $7101.84 or $7102 rounded up but in the lecture you have $6877 & the answers in the notes is $6695. Is there something I'm doing wrong?
I look forward to your reply.
No! there is nothing wrong you did.
Total Net Cash Flows for 3rd year $ 13463 but mistakenly written as $13163.
Best Regards