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FM Chapter 23 Questions – Foreign exchange risk management

VIVA

 

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Comments

  1. davidvdo says

    March 8, 2023 at 2:07 pm

    According to my understainding of question 2 my answer is the following. What am I doing incorrect? Thanks in advance for your explanation.

    To calculate the 6-month forward exchange rate, we can use the interest rate parity formula:

    F = S * (1 + r_h)^n / (1 + r_f)^n

    where F is the forward exchange rate, S is the spot exchange rate, r_h is the home country interest rate, r_f is the foreign country interest rate, and n is the time until the forward exchange rate.

    Plugging in the given information, we get:

    S = 20 dinar/$
    r_h = 3%
    r_f = 7%
    n = 6 months = 0.5 years

    Now, we can use the interest rate parity formula to calculate the forward exchange rate:

    F = S * (1 + r_h)^n / (1 + r_f)^n
    = 20 * (1 + 0.03)^0.5 / (1 + 0.07)^0.5
    = 19.6489 dinar/$

    Therefore, the 6-month forward exchange rate is 19.6489 dinar/$.

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    • John Moffat says

      March 8, 2023 at 3:04 pm

      For this formula, if the interest is 3% per annum, then for six months it is 3/2 = 1.5%.

      (You can see workings for all the questions if you click ‘review quiz’ after submitting your answers.)

      Log in to Reply
  2. davidvdo says

    March 8, 2023 at 1:56 pm

    Why is in question 2 the foreign country divided by the home country, and in question 1 the home country divided by the foreign country?

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    • John Moffat says

      March 8, 2023 at 3:09 pm

      The base currency in both cases is the $ and both questions have been done the same way.

      Did you watch the free lectures before attempting this quiz?

      Log in to Reply
  3. Pratibhapahwa4313 says

    August 15, 2020 at 8:22 pm

    Hi Sir,

    I am unable to understand the question 1. Could you please explain what exactly do we need to understand in this?

    Thanks alot in advance:)

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    • John Moffat says

      August 16, 2020 at 10:35 am

      You need to calculate the forward rate for 1 years time.

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      • Pratibhapahwa4313 says

        August 16, 2020 at 5:46 pm

        So the information given in the first para about getting the currency exchanged and again converting it is of no relevance ?

      • John Moffat says

        August 17, 2020 at 8:07 am

        It is relevant. They are going to exchange money now, then invest it, then convert it back in a years time. For there to be no gain or loss they will effectively be converting it back at the forward rate in one years time.

  4. thuyly134 says

    July 31, 2020 at 8:10 pm

    Hi Sir,
    For question 1, I calculated 12 month forward exchange rate is 1.418 euro per 1$ by using the formula. But I don’t understand the question clearly. The Q is “Compared to making a dollar investment for 12 months, at what 12 month Forward exchange rate will the investor make neither a loss or a gain?”. I am wondering if 12 month forward exchange rate (resulted in as 1.418 Eu per 1$) is the Spot rate on the date of the end of 12 month period? How can we predict the spot rate on a specific date in 12 months? How can we know we don’t make neither a loss nor a gain when we use this 12 month forward exchange rate? Please advise!!! Thank you so much!!!

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    • John Moffat says

      August 1, 2020 at 9:56 am

      The forward rate is the rate quoted now for converting in 12 months time. It is not the spot rate in 12 months time.
      I do explain this in my lectures.

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  5. sushanth12 says

    January 8, 2020 at 10:47 am

    80percent

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  6. pratim says

    January 16, 2019 at 4:32 pm

    In Q.5,
    Euro Has Strengthened. Doesn’t It Mean That Just The Way €1 = $2.4, It Can Be Interpreted As €0.8 = $2 Also ?

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  7. goddish says

    October 19, 2018 at 5:16 am

    Hello Mr. Moffat,

    Could you please clarify this for me. On question 5, I get your POV that says if the euro has strengthened, it means you get more dollars for 1 Euro.

    But is it also not the case that if the Euro has strengthened by 20%, you only need 80% of it to get a dollar. That is currently the spot is equivalent to €/$ 0.5. So 20% stronger gives €/$ 0.4, hence the total receivable becomes 1000*0.4=$400?

    Thanks

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    • goddish says

      October 19, 2018 at 5:18 am

      Correction: €400 rather.

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      • John Moffat says

        October 19, 2018 at 7:21 am

        You cannot have both of them strengthening!!

        Currently €1 buys $2.
        If the € strengthens by 20%, then 1 € will buy 20% more $’s. Therefore the new exchange rate will be such that €1 buys $2.40.

      • njivan28 says

        October 24, 2019 at 9:01 am

        Hello Sir.
        I am asking if is there a difference between the exchange rate of R13.50/$,becasue if i appreciate the rand,say to R10.30/$,the rules that the export must be expensive in foreign country(as in your example) does not hold,please help.maybe I appreciate it in a wrong way.

      • John Moffat says

        October 24, 2019 at 2:59 pm

        Assuming we are in the country that uses the Rand and are exporting to a country using the $, then exports certainly do become more expensive.

        Suppose you export something for R100 to America. At the moment, the cost in $’s is 100/13.50 = $7.41.

        If the exchange rate changes to R10.30/$, then the cost in $’s increases and becomes 100/10.30 = $9.71

  8. poonamvimal says

    October 5, 2018 at 7:12 pm

    Hi John, Just a doubt in q2 why we are using the interest rate parity to calculate the forward rate rather than purchasing power parity since both interest and inflatin rates are mentioned in the question. Thank You

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    • John Moffat says

      October 6, 2018 at 11:41 am

      As I explain in my free lectures, forward rates are always calculated using interest rate parity. Purchasing power parity is only used for estimating future spot rates.

      Log in to Reply
  9. priyashju30 says

    February 19, 2018 at 6:40 pm

    Hi sir
    Q1
    shouldn’t the ans be 1.415*((1.018)/(1.02))
    = 1.412
    as base is 2%

    Log in to Reply
    • John Moffat says

      February 20, 2018 at 8:23 am

      No – the answer is correct. The exchange rate is quoted against the $, so $ is the ‘base’ currency.
      Do watch my free lectures on this 🙂

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      • kotylisi says

        August 31, 2018 at 7:53 pm

        Dear sir, could you please explain the logic of 1st question? The question said that investor should have the same fin.result (getting from conversion to euro, invest them and then convert back) as he could make dollars investment at 1,8%…

      • John Moffat says

        September 1, 2018 at 9:54 am

        It is using the interest rate parity formula (which, as I explain in my free lectures, gives the forward rate and is equivalent to money market hedging).

      • jatingupta@2097 says

        March 20, 2021 at 3:48 pm

        Hello Sir, based on your above reply for Q.1, in Q.2 why is Dinar selected as the base currency and not the $?

      • John Moffat says

        March 21, 2021 at 9:52 am

        The $ has been used as the base currency (and is the currency used by the company).

  10. zahidzafar says

    June 13, 2017 at 8:27 am

    sir may you explain question 2??

    Why we are using both interest rate rather then one inflation of foreign country and interest of foriegn country.??

    We are using both interest rate.??

    Log in to Reply
    • John Moffat says

      June 13, 2017 at 2:03 pm

      Forward rates are always calculated using the interest rate parity formula.

      It would make no sense to use inflation rates and interest rates.

      Have you watched the free lectures on this?

      Log in to Reply
  11. khanhhoangvu says

    February 28, 2016 at 10:26 pm

    Dear Teacher,

    Could you please to make my problem more clear that the interest rate quoted in question 1 is the deposit rate or borrowing rate?

    Thank you Teacher very much

    Log in to Reply
    • John Moffat says

      February 29, 2016 at 7:32 am

      This is exactly how the question appeared in the real exam – with only one rate of interest it is only that rate that you can use in the formula!

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  12. madihaf92 says

    February 16, 2016 at 7:11 am

    i got all the questions right. what an amazing teacher. god bless you Mr. Moffat

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    • John Moffat says

      February 16, 2016 at 9:10 am

      Congratulations (and thank you 🙂 )

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      • haidershah says

        November 30, 2016 at 7:32 pm

        could you please explain this point that if euro is getting stronger by 20% then how come its becoming 1euro = $2.4

        my answer is coming $2.5

        = euro 2 / .8 = 2.5 which gives answer of 400euros

      • John Moffat says

        December 1, 2016 at 6:29 am

        At the moment, 1 euro buys $2

        If the euro is 20% stronger, then it buys 20% more $’s. 20% x $2 = $0.4. So it now buys $2.40

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