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I really do not understand why in Lease table you account for Tax saving as 30% of lease payment. Is it something usual for Britain? If you lease you have not to pay tax for property, so you should 30% multiply to potential property balance, no?
Please explain Bpp practice and revision kit (june18) question number 157
You must ask this sort of things in the Ask the Tutor Forum, and not as a comment on a lecture.