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Nkechi is correct – lease payments reduce the taxable profit and therefore result in a tax saving. This is the UK tax position (as per Paper TX).
I really do not understand why in Lease table you account for Tax saving as 30% of lease payment. Is it something usual for Britain? If you lease you have not to pay tax for property, so you should 30% multiply to potential property balance, no?
Tabushew,
That’s a tax saving on the lease payment. Just like you have tax savings on depreciation.
Please explain Bpp practice and revision kit (june18) question number 157
You must ask this sort of things in the Ask the Tutor Forum, and not as a comment on a lecture.