- This topic has 3 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 1 year ago by .
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
- You must be logged in to reply to this topic.
OpenTuition recommends the new interactive BPP books for March 2025 exams.
Get your discount code >>
Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › Credit Impaired Financial Assets
Hi,
In section 8.5.5, example 18 in the Study Hub, it says that the carrying amount of the bond would increase by $43,641 & this amount would be shown in SOFP as “Loss Allowance” and as “Impairment Gain” in SOPL.
My question is, how can a GAIN in carrying value be shown as a Loss Allowance? And what exactly is Impairment Gain?
Many Thanks 🙂
is this like a reversal of impairment ?
so its reversing the previous expenditure.
Okay, but as per what I understand, loss allowance is like a provision which is supposed to be created against the Assets. Then why is here a gain in Fair Value of the asset being shown as Loss Allowance?
If a loss allowances REDUCES, there would be an impairment gain.