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Plastik Co Goodwill impairement what is right?

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Plastik Co Goodwill impairement what is right?

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by P2-D2.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
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  • February 8, 2021 at 8:01 pm #609708
    StefanosG
    Participant
    • Topics: 20
    • Replies: 15
    • ☆

    Dear Tutor ,

    I have been wondering what i have been doing wrong on this exercice only to find that this exercise exists as a past exam 2014.

    So here is the exercise

    On 1 January 2014, Plastik acquired 80% of the equity share capital of Subtrak. The consideration was satisfied by a share exchange of two shares in Plastik for every three acquired shares in Subtrak. At the date of acquisition, shares in Plastik and Subtrak had a market value of $3 and $2·50 each respectively. Plastik will also pay cash consideration of 27·5 cents on 1 January 2015 for each acquired share in Subtrak. Plastik has a cost of capital of 10% per annum. None of the consideration has been recorded by Plastik.

    (v) Plastik’s policy is to value the non-controlling interest at fair value at the date of acquisition. For this purpose Subtrak’s share price at that date can be deemed to be representative of the fair value of the shares held by the non-controlling interest.
    (vi) Due to recent adverse publicity concerning one of Subtrak’s major product lines, the goodwill which arose on the acquisition of Subtrak has been impaired by $500,000 as at 30 September 2014. Goodwill impairment should be treated as an administrative expense. (vii) Assume, except where indicated otherwise, that all items of income and expenditure accrue evenly throughout the year

    (iv) Goodwill in Subtrak
    Investment at cost Shares (9,000 x 80% x 2/3 x $3) 14,400
    Deferred consideration (9,000 x 80% x 27·5 cents x 1/1·1) 1,800
    Non-controlling interest (9,000 x 20% x $2·50) 4,500 ––––––– 20,700
    Net assets (equity) of Subtrak at 30 September 2014 (12,500)
    Less post-acquisition profits (2,000 x 9/12) 1,500
    Fair value adjustment: property (4,000) –––––––
    Net assets at date of acquisition (15,000) –––––––
    Goodwill acqusition 5,700

    No impairment on goodwill acquisition

    Impairment deducted from Subtrak retained earnings column

    The same Exercise from past paper Acca 2014

    (iv) Goodwill in Subtrak

    Investment at cost Shares (9,000 x 80% x 2/3 x $3) 14,400
    Deferred consideration (9,000 x 80% x 27·5 cents x 1/1·1) 1,800
    Non-controlling interest (9,000 x 20% x $2·50) 4,500 ––––––– 20,700
    Net assets (equity) of Subtrak at 30 September 2014 (12,500)
    Less post-acquisition profits (2,000 x 9/12) 1,500
    Fair value adjustment: property (4,000) –––––––
    Net assets at date of acquisition (15,000) –––––––
    Goodwill on consolidation 5,700
    Impairment as at 30 September 2014 (500)
    5,200

    So my question is

    1)?ow can we arrive in two different goodwill calculations with the same info ?

    2)Do we always deduct the impairement on goodwill from the subsidiary column ?

    3)Is goodwill on acquisition different from goodwill on consolidation ?

    Thank you.

    February 8, 2021 at 9:02 pm #609736
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7149
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi,

    The goodwill calculated in the FR exam is always done under the fair value method (full goodwill) and both calculations above have been done the same, with the goodwill being deducted in the second one. Therefore whenever there is an impairment the impairment is deducted from the goodwill and then allocated to the group retained earnings and NCI based upon their shareholding. That also means that the goodwill impairment will always be deducted from S’s column in the group SPL, so as ti give the NCI their share when calculating the NCI at the bottom of the working.

    Goodwill on acquisition and goodwill on consolidation are the same thing.

    Thanks

    February 9, 2021 at 3:59 pm #609854
    StefanosG
    Participant
    • Topics: 20
    • Replies: 15
    • ☆

    Thank you for your swift response.

    But i haven’t understand why we deduct the impairment in one calculation and on the first one we don’t. Is there something that i am missing ? Because the two exercises state that there is an impairment of 500.000.

    Maybe i confused you with the “no impairment on goodwill acquisition” that was my note not from the exercise. Thank you.

    February 13, 2021 at 10:43 am #610227
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7149
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    There cannot be an impairment at acquisition. The impairment review will only occur at the reporting date, hence the impairment being deducted at the reporting date and not at acquistion.

    Thanks

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