Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Plastik Dec 14
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- November 19, 2019 at 4:58 pm #553107
Sir, in this question there was an adjustment that
Plastik had a trade receivable balance owing from Subtrak of 1.2 million as at 30 sept 20×4. This differed to the equivalent trade payable of Subtrak due to a payment by Subtrak of 400000 made in Sept 20×4 which did not clear Plastik’s bank account until 4 oct 20×4. Both entities have overdrafts rather than positive cash balances
Sir here in my opinion the entries should be as follows
1) Dr bank 400
Cr receivable 400Now removing intra group balance
2) Dr payable 800
Cr receivable 800Sir the second entry which I have passed above is correct as examiner has also done the same, but as far as first entry is concerned, examiner has done something different which I do not understand, Because in my opinion the first entry should be the one which I have passed above ,i.e bank should be increased by 400 and receivable should be decreased by 400
Please can you explain me this
November 24, 2019 at 10:08 pm #553646Hi,
I think you’ve missed the bit that states the companies have an overdraft. Given this then the debit entry to the bank will reduce the overdraft figure.
Thanks
November 25, 2019 at 7:13 pm #553744But they have deducted 400 from current assets, how overdraft can be in current assets, because overdraft is supposed to be a current liability
November 27, 2019 at 10:40 am #553892Presumably the 400 deduction in current assets is the credit entry to receivables.
Thanks
November 27, 2019 at 6:14 pm #553948Thanks
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