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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › Artwright (Kaplan SBR exam kit – Question 36)
Hi,
In the question referenced, I don’t understand the treatment of intangible assets. IAS 38 says in order to recognise an intangible asset, then it must be probable that future economic benefits will be earned. However, the text says they “have not concluded that economic benefits are likely to flow from this compound”
Given no economic benefits are confirmed, how can we call this an intangible asset?
Thanks,
could you also clarify why there is a $10m move on the derivative?
Hi,
Sorry, I’ve not got the Kaplan revision kit. Is this a past exam question? If so would you let me know which year it is from?
Thanks