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Impairment of assets

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Impairment of assets

  • This topic has 4 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 6 years ago by P2-D2.
Viewing 5 posts - 1 through 5 (of 5 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • October 28, 2018 at 1:59 pm #480058
    mika84
    Member
    • Topics: 99
    • Replies: 149
    • ☆☆☆

    Could you please explain the following:
    If valuation of the building indicated no impairment , can we conclude that the Property should be valued at CV for CGU?I could not find in the text the reference to this.I understand that it must not be lower than Realisable value, but why valuation of Building refers to Property, why not to leave Plant and Intangibles at CV?
    Thank you.

    October 28, 2018 at 2:12 pm #480059
    mika84
    Member
    • Topics: 99
    • Replies: 149
    • ☆☆☆

    In the text, they mean market value of buildings.

    October 30, 2018 at 8:34 pm #480267
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7141
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi,

    I’m sorry, but I don’t fully understand your point. Can you please try and explain it a bit further?

    Thanks

    October 31, 2018 at 5:25 am #480301
    mika84
    Member
    • Topics: 99
    • Replies: 149
    • ☆☆☆

    Hi,
    In Kaplan kit they say:

    A division of a company has the following balances in its financial statements:
    Goodwill $700,000
    Plant $950,000
    Property $2,300,000
    Intangibles $800,000
    Other net assets $430,000
    Following a period of losses, the recoverable amount of the division is deemed to be
    $4 million. A recent valuation of the building showed that the building has a market value of
    $2.5 million. The other net assets are at their recoverable amount. The company uses the
    cost model for valuing property, plant and equipment.

    Question:To the nearest thousand, what is the balance on property following the impairment
    review?

    In the answer they explain as following:valuation of 2.5 mln indicates that there is no impairment.Answer is 2.3 mln.

    My question:
    I understand that it must not be lower than Realisable value, but is there any rule that valuation of building gives us reference to property only? What about plant, for ex?
    Thank you.

    November 3, 2018 at 7:00 am #483627
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7141
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi,

    Thanks for the additional information. The division (CGU) is impaired as its carrying value is greater than the recoverable amount of $4 million.

    In allocating the impairment loss, it goes against specific assets that are impaired and goodwill before being allocated to the remaining assets on a pro-rata basis.

    On allocating the impairment on a pro-rata basis it wouldn’t be allocated to the property as we’re given specific information in the question that states in a recent valuation, its carrying value is below its market value, so there is no impairment to this asset. The impairment is then allocated to the intangibles, plant and other net assets.

    Hope that clears it up for you.

    Thanks

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