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Dear Sir,
I am attempting test your understanding No 1 of FR Kaplan Book Chapter No. 17 Where Cost of investment is 65000 but in answer of TYU 1 they use fair value to investment 60000 instead of 65000 so i am unable to understand why and how they used 60000 instead of 65000 kindly guide me in this regard. thank you so much in advance
Hi,
Could you please copy out the question? I don’t have the Kaplan materials at the moment.
Thanks
sir,
negetive goodwill post to profit or loss statement at credit side. Is this negetive goodwill increase or decrease profit?
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