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JUNE 2013 Vs DEC 2011 (Impairment)

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › JUNE 2013 Vs DEC 2011 (Impairment)

  • This topic has 6 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by amna.
Viewing 7 posts - 1 through 7 (of 7 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • November 16, 2016 at 4:09 am #349181
    amna
    Participant
    • Topics: 92
    • Replies: 93
    • ☆☆

    In june 2013 Impaiment of Park, in the answer there is an adjustment to the impairment stating “less notional goodwil” which is [ 80* (40/60)]

    However in the Dec 2011 Impairment of Captive in the answer there is a calculation stating “Goodwill impairment on Traveler’s share” which is [ (80% x 76·25) ]

    Both theses questions deal with proportionate method of calculating goodwill and thus grossed up amount needs to be included in the calculation of impairment,

    so why there are two methods used in the two above question?

    November 16, 2016 at 10:14 pm #349401
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7163
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi,

    It is because in one calculation they are calculating the impairment on the goodwill (Captive), whilst in the other (Park) they are working out the goodwill from the impairment. It’s a bit like mark-ups and margins, both very similar but slightly different.

    Thanks

    November 17, 2016 at 11:13 am #349549
    amna
    Participant
    • Topics: 92
    • Replies: 93
    • ☆☆

    ok but if we calculate Captive’s goodwill using the same method as Park, shouldn’t it give the same answer??

    I used the same method as Park (notional goodwill) but i got an answer for impairment to be set off against goodwill as

    76.25 – (120.8/80*20) = 46.05

    However in the answer they set off 61 against goodwill.

    why is this difference???

    November 19, 2016 at 6:12 am #349938
    amna
    Participant
    • Topics: 92
    • Replies: 93
    • ☆☆

    can you please clear this

    November 22, 2016 at 10:24 pm #350806
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7163
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Both answers are done in the same fashion?!?!?

    Park:

    Partial goodwill is $80m (=60%) so to get the NCI goodwill we do the following calculation, 80/60 x 40. This gives us the 53.3.

    Captive:

    Partial goodwill is $120.2 (=80%) so to get the NCI goodwill we do the following calculation, 120.2/80 x 20. This gives us the 30.05.

    Thanks

    December 2, 2016 at 4:08 am #353035
    amna
    Participant
    • Topics: 92
    • Replies: 93
    • ☆☆

    ok but in

    PARK the impairment is allocated as :

    Impairment 300·3
    Less notional goodwill on NCI (53·3)
    Impairment loss to be allocated 247

    Allocated to:

    Goodwill 80
    PPE 167
    Total 247

    but in CAPTIVE they have not deducted the notional goodwill to allocate the impairment to goodwill

    Goodwill impairment on grossed up amount 76·25

    Goodwill impairment on Traveler’s share (80% x 76·25) 61

    (above is what is given in the answer)

    shouldn’t the goodwill impairment allocated like this :

    impairment of 76.25
    (-) notional goodwill of 30.05 ( ie. what you have calculated )
    impairment to be allocated 46.2

    thus impairment to be set off against goodwill is 46.2

    and thus NCV of goodwill of captive being 74 ( ie. 120.2 – 46.2 )

    December 5, 2016 at 12:59 am #353863
    amna
    Participant
    • Topics: 92
    • Replies: 93
    • ☆☆

    can you please clear it for me 🙂

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