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bank loan WACC treatment

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › bank loan WACC treatment

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • Author
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  • March 14, 2015 at 6:26 pm #232400
    bezanija
    Member
    • Topics: 9
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    Dear Tutor ,

    I was unable to get the logic behind this question so I decided to post part of the question so u could better understand what I`m asking

    I was trying to solve this question and I still have this problem with Bank Loan and what is the treatment of it when calculating WACC , what I`m questioned about is why the figure for the bank loan stays the same 1540 while other figures have been calculated for their market value , and why there was a calculation for a bank loan (as you see below 9,1%) and what do we use that figure for.

    Question 24 REDSKINS PLC
    Redskins plc has an authorised share capital of 10 million 25c ordinary shares, of which 8 million have been issued. The current ex-dividend market price per ordinary share is $1.10. A dividend of 10c per share has been paid recently. The company’s project analyst has calculated that 18% is the most appropriate cost of equity capital. Extracts from the latest balance sheets for both the group and the holding company are given
    Redskins and Subs Redskins
    $000 $000
    Issued Share Capital 2,000 2,000
    Share Premium 1,960 1,960
    Reserves 3,745 708
    Shareholders funds 7,705 4,668
    _____ _____

    Redskins and Subs Redskins
    Minority interests 895 –
    _____ _____
    3% Irredeemable 1,400 –
    9% Debentures 1,500 1,500
    6% Bonds 2,000 2,000
    Bank Loans 1,540 600
    _____ _____
    6,440 4,100

    All debt interest is payable annually and all the current year’s payments will be made shortly. The current cum-interest

    market prices for $100 nominal value are $31.60 and $103.26 for the 3% and 9% debentures respectively. Both the 9% debentures and the 6% bonds are redeemable at par in ten years’ time. The 6% bonds are not traded on the open market but the analyst estimates that its actual pre-tax cost is 10% per annum. The bank loans bear interest at 2% above base rate (which is currently 11%) and are repayable in six years. The effective corporation tax rate of Redskins plc is 30%

    Required: (a) Calculate the effective after-tax weighted average cost of capital as required by the directors.

    Part of the answer:
    After-tax cost of bank loan = (11% + 2%) × (1 – 0.30) = 9.10%

    Equity 8,000 × 1.1 = 8,800
    3% debt 1,400 × 0.286 = 400
    9% debt 1,500 × 0.9426 =1,414
    6% debt 2,000 × 0.7547 =1,509
    Bank loan =1,540

    Thanks in advance

    March 14, 2015 at 6:35 pm #232404
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54665
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The value of a bank loan is always the amount in the Statement of financial position (unlike traded debt where the market value changes).

    A bank loan is treated as part of long term finance and so is included in the calculation of the WACC in the same way as is all the other long term finance.

    The interest (as with all interest) is always assumed to be allowable for tax, and so the cost to the company is 13% x 0.7 (with tax relief at 30%).

    The free lectures on calculating the WACC will help you with this in terms of both the logic and the arithmetic.

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