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Exchange difference on goodwill

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › Exchange difference on goodwill

  • This topic has 13 replies, 4 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by P2-D2.
Viewing 14 posts - 1 through 14 (of 14 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • December 2, 2014 at 1:02 pm #215979
    beatasz
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 22
    • ☆

    Hi Mike,

    I am a bit confused with exchange diff on goodwill when calculating RE. I though we should apportion our share let say 70% of whole gain on goodwill goes to RE parent and 30% goes to NCI. However, I came across questions like Memo (Q47 BPP Revision Kit) when the whole gain on goodwill exchange is included in parent RE. What is the reason behind that?

    Many thanks in advance for your help!!

    Beata

    December 2, 2014 at 1:05 pm #215982
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Was the nci in Memo proportionately calculated?

    December 2, 2014 at 1:09 pm #215985
    beatasz
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 22
    • ☆

    nothing mentioned in the question at all.but when I check how they calculated goodwill it looks like the used full method.

    December 2, 2014 at 1:19 pm #215989
    beatasz
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 22
    • ☆

    sorry just see that is says that NCI is proportionately calculated… thanks!

    December 2, 2014 at 1:55 pm #216013
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Ah-ha!

    The moral? RTFQ – very carefully!

    December 2, 2014 at 2:00 pm #216014
    beatasz
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 22
    • ☆

    Oooo Mike please enough confusion for today 🙂 what do you mean RTFQ? I am still checking the question and answer for that as I am not sure I understand.

    Thanks for coming back to me!

    December 2, 2014 at 2:06 pm #216016
    beatasz
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 22
    • ☆

    ok got you read through the full question carefully 🙂 thanks. yes got my lesson 🙂

    December 2, 2014 at 2:12 pm #216020
    beatasz
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 22
    • ☆

    mike what I dont get is taht in that question goodwill is calculated as follow:

    Consideration paid 120
    NCI(132×25%) 33
    _________

    less Fv of net assets (132)
    Impairment (4.2)
    _______
    Goodwill 16.8

    This isnt really a way you calculate a goodwill by prportionate method is it?

    that why I am confused…what I am missing ? 🙂

    thanks!

    December 2, 2014 at 2:12 pm #216021
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Good – and carry that little lesson forwards into the exam room next week

    🙂

    December 2, 2014 at 2:30 pm #216034
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Yes, if they are proportionate it means that their value is their percentage proportion of the FV of SNA @ DOA

    What you may be getting confused with is the notional allocation of goodwill to the nci so we can do an impairment calculation

    Where nci investment is valued as their proportional share of the FV of SNA @ DOA then there is no goodwill attributable to them

    But, on the occasion of an impairment review, we will be considering the cgu of the subsidiary as a whole and, for those purposes, we shall allocate an amount of notional goodwill to the nci

    If goodwill (entirely attributable to the 75% parent) were sat $120,000, then the 25% nci has a virtual / notional 25 / 75 * $120,000 ie $40,000

    When we now look at recognised assets of the subsidiary and add on the goodwill attributable to the parent $120,000 PLUS the notional goodwill attributable to the nci $40,000, we can compare that grand total with the recoverable amount of the cgu / subsidiary.

    Where that recoverable amount is lower than the carrying value, we need to impair the carrying value. That impairment is allocated first to any individual asset within the cgu that is impaired

    Secondly we impair the goodwill. If the total impairment is less than the combined total of $160,000, we sub-divide the (say) $100,000 between parent and nci ($75,000 / $25,000) but we only account for the $75,000 because the nci didn’t have any goodwill to begin with on a proportional basis, so how can we charge them with their share of any impairment

    The only entry would be to reduce goodwill by $75,000 and reduce consolidated retained earnings in working W3

    If the impairment exceeded total goodwill, say total impairment is $212,000, then the allocation of the goodwill impairment will be $120,000 / $40,000. Of these two, only $120,000 will be accounted for – debit consolidated retained earnings credit goodwill.

    The remaining amount to be impaired is then $212,000 – $160,000 = $52,000.

    This figure of $52,000 will be used to reduce carrying values of assets in the cgu subsidiary on a pro rata basis and 75% ($39,000) charged to consolidated retained earnings. The remaining $13,000 will be charged against the nci

    Is that ok?

    December 2, 2014 at 2:44 pm #216044
    beatasz
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 22
    • ☆

    I print and read through what you have said again but I got it.

    Thanks very much for your time and taking my confusion seriously 🙂 very much appreciated!!

    I will as well remember to RTFQ 🙂

    Beata

    December 2, 2014 at 4:31 pm #216098
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    That’s a girl!

    (I assume, with a name like Beata!)

    Throughout your exam-taking life, RTFQ

    And the rest of you reading this, Read The Full Question!

    December 1, 2017 at 4:53 pm #419463
    yohmie
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    Hi Mike,

    My question is on the allocation of exchange difference on goodwill among owners (parent company and NCI) when dealing with a foreign subsidiary at consolidation.

    My understanding is that exchange difference on goodwill is to be apportioned between owners using percentage share of each owner if NCI is measured at fair value but I saw a solution that treated it differently.

    The exchange difference on goodwill was apportioned between NCI and parent company using their individual goodwill. For instance, NCI share of exchange difference on goodwill was calculated as follows: NCI goodwill (NCI at date of acquisition less NCI portion of subsidiary fair value at date of acquisition) divided by total goodwill multiplied by exchange difference on goodwill. The parent company share of exchange difference on goodwill was calculated as total exchange difference of goodwill less NCI share of exchange difference on goodwill.

    Is my understanding accurate or the solution I saw more accurate?

    Thanks for your time.

    December 4, 2017 at 8:35 pm #420384
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7163
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi,

    Can you please start your question on a new thread? This thread is initially from three years ago.

    Thanks

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