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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › Financial Instruments
Hello, regarding IFRS 9 and being measured at amortisation cost, the standard says the following:
4.1.2 A financial asset shall be measured at amortised cost if both of the
following conditions are met:
(a) the financial asset is held within a business model whose objective
is to hold financial assets in order to collect contractual cash flows
and
(b) the contractual terms of the financial asset give rise on specified
dates to cash flows that are solely payments of principal and
interest on the principal amount outstanding.
My question is, what exactly is the difference ? they both mention a cash flow into the business.
Hi,
The first is with regards to the intent to hold the financial assets until its maturity date when we receive the final cash flow.
The second is with regards to there being contractual cash flows over the instrument’s life.
Thanks