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Working Capital Management !

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Working Capital Management !

  • This topic has 14 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 15 posts - 1 through 15 (of 15 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • December 11, 2014 at 7:45 pm #220242
    Jumaev
    Participant
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    Dear Tutor,
    I am little bit confused with this question. I give state shortly which is main points of the question. Annual turnover of the firm $4000 000 Recievale balance $ 550 000 Company’s overdraft annual interest 9%. Alll sales are on 40 days credit. Company offering a discount 1% to customers paying within 14 days. The company expects offering discount for early payment will reduce the average credit period taken by it’s customers to 26 days. Need calculate balance of recievables. Answer is $ 283 000. Thanks in advance

    December 12, 2014 at 12:45 pm #220339
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    At the moment, receivables are 550,000.

    If we give the discount then receivables will be 26/365 x $4M

    (This comes to 285,000, not 283,000, but without seeing the whole question I cannot really say more.)

    December 12, 2014 at 1:52 pm #220351
    Jumaev
    Participant
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    Ok Dear Tutor,
    I will write full question.
    Vell com sells stationary and office supplies on wholesaleable basis and has annual turnover 4 mln. The company employs four people in it’s sales ledger and credit control department at annual salary $12000 each. Alll sales are on 40 days credit with no discount for early payment. Bad debts reprsents 3% of turnover and Velm com pays annual interest of 9% on it’s overdraft. The most recent accounts of company financial information.
    Non current asset -17500
    inventory – 900
    Recievable – 550
    Cash – 120
    Ordinary shares – 3500
    Reserves – 11640
    12% Bonds – 2400
    Trade payable – 330
    Overdraft- 1200
    Velm Co is considering offering discount of 1% to customers paying within 14days which it believs will reduce bad debts to 2.4% of turnover. The company also expects that offering a discount for early payment will reduce the average credit taken by it’s customers to 26 days. The consequent reduction in time spent chasing customers where payments are overdue will allow one member of credit control team to take ealry retirement. Two thirds of customer are expected to take advantage of the discount.

    Question> Using the information provided above determine whether a discount for early payment of 1% percent will lead to an increase in profitability for Velm comp.?

    Thanks in advance

    December 12, 2014 at 3:31 pm #220373
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Since 2/3 of the customers take a 1% discount, the discount is 2/3 x 1% x $4M = 26,667

    Since the new receivables period is 26 days, the new average receivables will be 26/365 x ($4M – 26,667) = 283,032.

    I think this is what you were querying. If anything else in the answer does not make sense then ask!

    (The examiner did say after this question that you would still get full marks is you calculated the new receivables as 26/365 x $4M (i.e. if you ignored the discount when calculating the new receivables))

    December 13, 2014 at 8:36 pm #220471
    Jumaev
    Participant
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    Dear Tutor,
    One thing I could not understand why you did minuse $26,667 from receivables balance ?

    December 14, 2014 at 10:41 am #220505
    Jumaev
    Participant
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    As i know theoritically how to calculate receivable balance if the discount is offered is as like below:

    Receivable balance: 4000×2/3×14/365 + 4000×1/3×40/365=102.3+146.1=248.4

    But the correct answer is 283000

    December 14, 2014 at 2:58 pm #220531
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    There is nothing theoretical involved!

    The question actually says what the average receivables days will be: 26 days.

    Also, just because that sales are on 40 days credit, does not mean that people actually pay in 40 days (in fact, if you calculate the current receivables days, it is more that 40 days). Also, even if they did currently pay in 40 days, why should those who take the discount continue to pay in 40 days?

    If the question tells you the average receivables days, then there is no point in making extra work 🙂

    December 14, 2014 at 5:01 pm #220547
    Jumaev
    Participant
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    Yeah, Thanks so much Dear Tutor, I was also wondering when I calculated average receivable days based on receivable on balans sheet 550/4mlnx365= 50 days but i was wondering why it is different from 40 days as question says. Thanks so much Dear Tutor, your explanation is so clear for me now.

    December 15, 2014 at 9:09 am #220610
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

    December 15, 2014 at 9:39 am #220620
    Jumaev
    Participant
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    Dear Tutor, I have another question
    The current policy is order 100,000 units when the inventory levels falls to 35000 units.Forecast demand to meet production requirement during the next year is 625000 units. The cost of placing and processing an order is $250 while the cost of holding a unit in stores is $0.5 per unit per year. Both costs are expected to be constant during the next year. Orders are recieved two weeks after being placed with suppliers. You should assume a 50 week year and that demand is constant throughout the year.

    Calculate the cost of the current ordering policy and determine the saving that could be made by using the EOQ model.

    My calculation method.

    D=625000
    Co=250
    Ch=0.5
    EOQ= 25000
    Total cost= 625000/25000×250+25000/2×0,5= 12500
    Total cost (By company policy)= 625000/100000×250+100 000/2×0.5=26563
    Saving= 26563-12500=14063
    _____________________________________________________________________
    Calculation by book
    Minimum inventory level= reorder level -(average usagexaverage lead time)
    Avergae usage per week= 625000/50=12500
    Avergae lead time= 2 weeks
    Reorder level=35000 units
    Minimum inventory level=35000-(12500×2)=10 000 units
    Average inventory = Minimum level+reorder level/2 = 10000+(100 000/2)=60 000 units

    Annual holding cost=60 000 x0.5 = 30 000
    Annual order cost= 250x(625000/100 000) = 1563
    Annual cost= 30000+1563=31563

    EOQ=25000
    Number of orders per years=625000/25000=25
    Annual oredering cost=250×25=6250
    Annual holding cost =(10 000+(25000/2))x0.50 =11250
    Annual total cost =11250+6250=17500
    Saving as a result of EOQ= 31563-17500=14063

    So, you can see both method are the same result. What do you think My method is correct if I follow. Because the book method is so complex. Thanks in advance

    December 15, 2014 at 2:15 pm #220644
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    If the question only asked for the saving, then what you have done is fine.

    However, it also asked for the cost of the current ordering policy. Here there is an extra holding cost because they are ordering sooner than they need to and so there is extra inventory held throughout the year.
    They are ordering when they still have 35,000 left in inventory. While waiting for the new order to arrive they will sell 2/50 x 625000 = 25,000 units. This means that they will have 10,000 more units than they need, throughout the year.
    The cost of holding these extra 10,000 units is 10,000 x $0.5 = $5,000.
    This explains why your answer for the cost of the current ordering policy is $5,000 different.

    (The saving is not affected, because the $5,000 a year will be payable whether they keep to the current policy or change to the EOQ)

    December 15, 2014 at 6:40 pm #220667
    Jumaev
    Participant
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    thanks Tutor !

    December 16, 2014 at 9:22 am #220691
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

    December 20, 2014 at 6:50 pm #221195
    Jumaev
    Participant
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    Hi Good evening Tutor, I have one more question which I calculated the correct answer but slightly confused with method of book. I give full question detail.
    Income statement:
    Sales: 21,300
    Cost of sales: 16,400
    Gross profit: 4900
    Balance sheet:
    Receivables; 3500
    Overdraft; 3000

    A factor has offered to manage the trade recievables of Bold in a servicing and factor financing agreement. The factor expects to reduce the average trade recievables of Bold from current level to 35 days to reduce bad debts from 0.9% of turnover to 0.6% of turnover. and save Bold 40 000 per year in admin cost. The factor would also makae an advance to Bold 80% of the revided book value of recievables. The interest rate on the advance would be 2% higher than the 7% that Bold currently pays on its overdraft. The factor would charge a fee of 0.75 % of turnover an a with- recourse basis or a fee of 1.25 % of turnover on a recourse basis. Assume 365 days in a year. that all sales and supplies on a credit.
    Question: Calculate the value of Factor’s offer
    1) On a with recourse basis
    2) on a with non-recourse basis.
    _______________________________________________________________________
    My calculations method; Let us consider the costs with out factors offers.
    Bad debts=21300×0.9=191.7
    Financing cost= 3500×7%=245
    Admind cost= 40
    Total cost=191.7+245+40=476.7

    1) what will be total costs If Factors offer with recourse basis
    Factos cost= 21300×0,75%=159.75
    Finance cost ( for 80% advance)= 35/365x21300x80%x9%= 147
    FInance cost (for 20 remaing receivables)= 35/365x21300x20%x7%= 28.6
    Bad debts = 21300x 0.6%= 127.8
    Total cost= 159.75+147+28.6+127.8= 463,15

    Net Benefit from Factor service on Recourse basis= 476.7-463.15=13.55 ( Answer is correct with the book)

    2) What will be the total cost if factors with non recourse basis;
    Factor cost= 21300×1.25%=266.25
    Finance cost ( for 80% advance)= 35/365x21300x80%x9%= 147
    FInance cost (for 20 remaing receivables)= 35/365x21300x20%x7%= 28.6
    Total costs= 266.25+147+28.6= 441,85

    Net Benefits from Factors with non recourse basis= 476.7- 441,85= 34.85 ( correct answer with the book)

    BUT WHAT I AM CONFUSED HERE AS I KNOW NON RECOURSE BASIS FACTOR SERVICE IT TAKES ALL THE BAD DEBTS. IF I TAKE THE BAD DEBTS FOR NON RECOURSE IT IS WRONG ANSWER COMES. look my method i calculated is there any wrong ?

    December 21, 2014 at 3:23 pm #221215
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I am puzzled because you say that your answer is correct with the book, and that is fine!

    Nor-recourse factoring is where the factor bears all the irrecoverable debts, and therefore the company has no irrecoverable debts.

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