I watched question 1 from 2010 and 2012 revision. I would like to know if we working 4B still exists as the subsidiary’s share of post acq ret. is included in working 4A. W4A also now uses value of nci instead of BS, adjustments and goodwill. Will this always be the case?
Working W4B will be necessary where an exam question asks for a statement of profit or loss and not a statement of financial position
Calculation of the nci is still the same as the previous approach (that is, they arrive at the same figure). It’s just a different way of getting to that figure and it’s the way I currently use – sorry if that’s caused confusion