Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FA – FIA FFA › why we do not consider the market value of the shares of splinter (fair value)
- This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 3 years ago by John Moffat.
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- October 6, 2021 at 9:17 pm #637170
Plank acquired 60% of the issued equity share capital of Splinter on 1 January 20X2. On that
date, Plank paid $3 cash per share acquired and also issued two shares (nominal value $1 per
share) in exchange for each Splinter share acquired. At the date of acquisition, Splinter had
ten million equity shares of $1 nominal value in issue, plus a share premium account balance
of $10 million and had retained earnings of $50 million. The fair value of the non?controlling
interest in Splinter at the date of acquisition was $14 million. The fair value of an equity share
in Plank and Splinter were $4.50 and $1.50 respectively at 1 January 20X2.
What was goodwill on acquisition of Splinter for inclusion in the consolidated financial
statements of Plank for the year ended 31 December 20X2?18+54+14=86 – (1×10)-10-50 =16m {but why not (1.5×10) fair value of shares instead of (1×10)}
October 7, 2021 at 9:32 am #63719186 is the total value being placed on Splinter.
70 is the total book value of Splinter from their SOFP.
Therefore the difference of 16 is the value being placed on the goodwill.
1 x 10 is not the fair value of the shares. It is the value of the share capital in Splinter’s SOFP. The fair value of the non-controlling interest is $14M (as per the question) and this is only relevant for calculating the total value being places on Splinter of 86.
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