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why we do not consider the market value of the shares of splinter (fair value)

SDSameed Danial4y ago
Plank acquired 60% of the issued equity share capital of Splinter on 1 January 20X2. On that date, Plank paid $3 cash per share acquired and also issued two shares (nominal value $1 per share) in exchange for each Splinter share acquired. At the date of acquisition, Splinter had ten million equity shares of $1 nominal value in issue, plus a share premium account balance of $10 million and had retained earnings of $50 million. The fair value of the non?controlling interest in Splinter at the date of acquisition was $14 million. The fair value of an equity share in Plank and Splinter were $4.50 and $1.50 respectively at 1 January 20X2. What was goodwill on acquisition of Splinter for inclusion in the consolidated financial statements of Plank for the year ended 31 December 20X2? 18+54+14=86 - (1x10)-10-50 =16m {but why not (1.5x10) fair value of shares instead of (1x10)}
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor4y ago#1
86 is the total value being placed on Splinter. 70 is the total book value of Splinter from their SOFP. Therefore the difference of 16 is the value being placed on the goodwill. 1 x 10 is not the fair value of the shares. It is the value of the share capital in Splinter's SOFP. The fair value of the non-controlling interest is $14M (as per the question) and this is only relevant for calculating the total value being places on Splinter of 86. Have you watched my free lectures on this? The lectures are a complete free course for Paper FA and cover everything needed to be able to pass the exam well.
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