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Why Depreciation and Apportioned Fixed Costs are added back to Annual cash flow

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA FM Financial Management Forums › Why Depreciation and Apportioned Fixed Costs are added back to Annual cash flow

  • This topic has 5 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 11 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • January 10, 2014 at 4:05 am #153953
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 43
    • Replies: 124
    • ☆☆

    Hi there,

    In the F9 text book, relevant costs are not including depreciation and apportioned fixed overheads. But there is the answer for a quetion that I don’t understand.
    Question summary:
    capital exenditure on purchasing an equipment: $160K
    Annual profits: $8K
    The profits is after deducting from annual depreciation and annual charge of shared fixed overheads.
    The annual depreciation is $40K
    The shared fixed overheads is $25K

    Question: What are the relevant cash flows for this?
    Answer: Depreciation and apportioned fixed overheads are not relevant. Depreciation is not a cash flow and apportioned fixed overheads represent cost that will be incurred anyway.

    Then check this, this table buggers me big time:
    Estimated profits: 8K
    Add back depreciation: 40K
    Add back apportioned fixed costs: 25K
    Annual cash flows: 8K+40K+25K = 73K

    The project’s cash flows to be evaluated are:
    Year 0, purchase equiment, (160K)
    1-4 year’s cash flow from profits, 73K each year.

    My confusing:
    If depreciation and fixed overheads are not included in relevant cost for cash flow, why they were added back to profits when it was calculated?

    Many thanks!

    January 10, 2014 at 5:38 am #153954
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54679
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The profit figures in the account are calculate after charging depreciation and fixed costs. Since these costs are not relevant we need to know what the profit would have been before these two expenses.
    This is 73,000. (The profit itself would have these two expenses charged and would be therefore lower at 8,000)

    January 10, 2014 at 6:55 am #153956
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 43
    • Replies: 124
    • ☆☆

    Oh, oh, Eureka! I get it now! Because they are irrevalent, they shouldn’t have been deducted in the first place. Am I right? Thanks!

    January 10, 2014 at 10:08 am #153959
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54679
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    That’s right 🙂

    January 14, 2014 at 9:49 am #154048
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 43
    • Replies: 124
    • ☆☆

    Thank you so much!

    January 14, 2014 at 1:18 pm #154053
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54679
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
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