Why are redeemable preference shares not paid half of dividend in this question?

Question

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Bird Ltd. has the following share capital:
$0.25 ordinary share capital $ 2,000,000

8% irredeemable preference share capital $800,000

6% redeemable preference share capital $ 500,000

It paid interim dividend of 0.3 / share on 3rd July 20X8. It announced a final dividend on ordinary shares of $ 0.2 / share on 2nd February 20X9.
Half of the dividend on preference shares was paid before year ended 31st December, 20X8.

Find out the dividend charged to SOCE for year ended 31st December 20X8.

Solution

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No of ordinary shares = 8,000,000 shares

Interim dividend = $ 2, 400, 000

Final dividend (declared after year end)

Preference dividend

800,000 x 8% = 64000

Total dividend = 2,400,000 $ + $ 32,000 + $ 32,000

Total dividend = 2,464,000 $ charged to SOCE

I have three problems regarding this solution:

A) Why are shareholders that own 6% redeemable preference shares not paid half of dividend?

B) Why is 8% of share capital (irredeemable) the preference dividend? Why is it not 8% of par value as per the open tuition lecture?

I did it like this(which is wrong) :
Irredeemable shares must be 3,200,000 issued at par value of 0.25 per share giving capital of $ 800,000.

Now taking 8 percent of par value (0.25) gives 0.02 $ but half is paid so 0.01 $ per share.

Multiple 3,200,000 shares with 0.01$ / share = $32,000.

Why is this incorrect? Please point out.

C) Why does the solution add paid as well as unpaid dividend for calculating total dividend?

Thank you!