When NCI valued proportinately

Hey Mike,

In one of your lectures on Consolidations you said if the NCI is valued proportionately we do not impair goodwill as they had not paid for the goodwill to begin with. I don’t think I get the logic here. Why would NCI ever pay for goodwill? Why do we impair them in other cases. Only the parent always pays the premium as they get the controlling interest. So why in other cases we impair goodwill for NCI?

Regards,
Akash M