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- This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by
John Moffat.
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- April 3, 2018 at 4:00 pm #444783
Hello
Please can you explain the slight difference as i am currently studying F3 with Kaplan (ACCA). In the Kaplan study text book it gives me an example of weighted average and they do the calculations slightly different to how you do them in the videos. This is their way –
31 Dec – opening = 5 units at a cost of $3.50 per unit
Purchases
2 Jan – 5 units at £4.00 per unit
4 Jan – 5 units at 5.00 per unit
6 Jan – 5 units at 5.50 per unitSold 7 units for $10.00 per unit on 5 Jan
31 Dec OP INV 5 x 3.50 17.50
2 Jan Purchases 5 x 4.00 20.0010 x (37.5/10) 3.75 37.50
4 Jan Purchases 5 x 5.00 25.00
15 (62.5/15) 4.17 62.50
5 Jan Sold (7) 4.17 (29.19)
8 33.31
6 Jan Purchased 5 x 5.50 27.50
13 60.81Closing Inventory Value – 60.81
However, when i do it the same way that you have done it in your videos i get 60.86 but the next part of the question in the book asks me to do an income statement which means the closing inventory figure is going to be out by 0.05p. Please can you advise
Your way
31 Dec OP INV 5 x 3.5 17.50
2 Jan Purchases 5 x 4.00 20.00
10 37.504 Jan Purchases 5 x 5.00 25.00
15 (62.5/15) 4.17 62.50
5 Jan Sold (7)
8 33.36
6 Jan Purchases 5 x 5.50 27.50
13 60.86Closing Inventory Valuation 60.86
April 4, 2018 at 6:34 am #444887The difference is due purely to rounding, and questions in the exam are designed in such a way that rounding is irrelevant. (Nobody in practice is going to be worried about 5 cents 🙂 )
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