• Skip to primary navigation
  • Skip to main content
  • Skip to primary sidebar
Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition

Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition

Free Notes, Lectures, Tests and Forums for ACCA and CIMA exams

  • ACCA
  • CIMA
  • FIA
  • OBU
  • Books
  • Forums
  • Ask AI
  • Search
  • Register
  • Login
  • ACCA Forums
  • Ask ACCA Tutor
  • CIMA Forums
  • Ask CIMA Tutor
  • FIA
  • OBU
  • Buy/Sell Books
  • All Forums
  • Latest Topics

20% off ACCA & CIMA Books

OpenTuition recommends the new interactive BPP books for March and June 2025 exams.
Get your discount code >>

Warden co dec 2011

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Warden co dec 2011

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • February 7, 2018 at 3:13 am #435600
    imran5556
    Participant
    • Topics: 39
    • Replies: 29
    • ☆☆

    I don’t understand partc Selling price sensitivity
    The present value of revenue = 100000*16*3.696=$5913600
    Tax libabilites arises from sales revenue= 100000*16*0.30=$480000
    Present value of tax liabilites without lagging = 480000*3.696=$1774080
    Sir my point is if they have already calculated the present value then again why they have disounted lagging by one year present value of tax liabilites= 1774080*0.901=$1598446
    After present value of sales revenue = 5913600-1598446=$4315154
    I dont undestand this calculation sir

    February 7, 2018 at 1:41 pm #435676
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54671
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I guess you are happy from my lectures on this that we calculate the sensitivity by diving the NPV by the PV of whatever it is that changes,

    In this case, as the selling price changes so the total revenue will change. But also, if the revenue changes then the tax will also change (less revenue means less tax payable).

    Given that the tax is 30%, then the PV of the tax on the revenue would simply be 30% of the PV of the revenue if there was no delay in tax.
    However, because there is a one year delay in tax, all the tax flows are 1 year later than the revenue flows, and so the tax flows need discounting by 1 more year to get back to their present value.

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • You must be logged in to reply to this topic.
Log In

Primary Sidebar

Donate
If you have benefited from our materials, please donate

ACCA News:

ACCA My Exam Performance for non-variant

Applied Skills exams is available NOW

ACCA Options:  “Read the Mind of the Marker” articles

Subscribe to ACCA’s Student Accountant Direct

ACCA CBE 2025 Exams

How was your exam, and what was the exam result?

BT CBE exam was.. | MA CBE exam was..
FA CBE exam was.. | LW CBE exam was..

Donate

If you have benefited from OpenTuition please donate.

PQ Magazine

Latest Comments

  • huunghia18499 on Foreign currency- Functional currency – ACCA (SBR) lectures
  • DuDE on Inventory Control (part 1) The EOQ Formula – ACCA Management Accounting (MA)
  • Nabiha on FA Chapter 2 Questions The Statement of Financial Position and Statement of Profit or Loss
  • John Moffat on The Statement of Financial Position – ACCA Financial Accounting (FA) lectures
  • Bainamura on The Statement of Financial Position – ACCA Financial Accounting (FA) lectures

Copyright © 2025 · Support · Contact · Advertising · OpenLicense · About · Sitemap · Comments · Log in