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Could someone please explain me one issue in VAT triangulation. Company A (Germany) sells to company B (UK) (intermediate), which sells to company C(France). Company A send goods directly to C. Normalny, without simplification company A would issue german Vat 0% invoice once B provide it with its UK VAT number. Next B sells this goods to C. Everywhere I check IT says that B must register for VAT in france but I dont understand why?
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