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- This topic has 9 replies, 4 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by John Moffat.
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- January 1, 2016 at 12:38 pm #293135
A company uses standard marginal costing. Its budgeted contribution for the last month was $20,000. The
actual contribution for the month was $15,000, and the following variances have been calculated:
Sales volume contribution variance $5,000 adverse
Sales price variance $9,000 favourable
Fixed overhead expenditure variance $3,000 favourableWhat was the total variable cost variance?
A $9,000 adverse
B $9,000 favourable
C $12,000 adverse
D $12,000 favourablethe answer is A……. i didnt get how it is solved
January 1, 2016 at 3:25 pm #293156Budgeted contribution $20000
Sales volume contribution variance $5000(A)
Standard contribution from actual sales $15000Variance
Sales price variance $9000(F)
Total variable cost variance $9000(A)
Actual contribution $15000You have to subtract $5000 of sales volume contribution variance from the budgeted contribution since it is adverse and then you get a standard contribution from actual sales of $15000. Thereafter you add $9000 of sales price variance since it is favourable and then you have to find the missing figure to get actual contribution of $15000, which is an adverse of $9000. Ignore Fixed overhead expenditure variance ($3,000 favourable) since it not part of marginal costing π hope u understood
January 1, 2016 at 3:35 pm #293157yeah, i did thankyou π
January 2, 2016 at 7:35 am #293214Shazzy: Thank you for your answer, but please do not answer in this forum – it is the Ask the Tutor Forum, and you are not the tutor. (But please do answer in the other F2 forum).
January 2, 2016 at 7:37 am #293220Oh Im so sorry sir.. I really had no idea…wont happen again π
January 2, 2016 at 7:51 am #293237No problem π
January 6, 2016 at 7:47 pm #293624Hi sir!! I have question . my question is :
a company makes a single product .the following details are from the cost card for the product:direct labour : 10 hrs atΒ£5 per hrs
Variable overhead: 10 hrs atΒ£1.5 per hour
The actual result for the last period are:
500 units produce labour : 4800 hours
Variable overhead: Β£7700
My question is as far as I know efficiency variance is,actul hrs work
& standard hours actual production…. Working is 4800-(500*10)=200 .but this is not correct answer!!!January 6, 2016 at 7:51 pm #293627It is not the correct answer because 200 is the number of hours, and variances are always stated in $’s !!
You need to multiply by the standard cost per hour.
I do suggest that you watch our free lectures. They are a complete course for Paper F2 and cover everything needed to be able to pass the exam well.
January 6, 2016 at 8:21 pm #293632Thanks sir… Still watchig ur variance lectures…. It’s great..
January 7, 2016 at 6:36 am #293646You are welcome π
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