• Skip to primary navigation
  • Skip to main content
  • Skip to primary sidebar
Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition

Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition

Free Notes, Lectures, Tests and Forums for ACCA and CIMA exams

  • ACCA
  • CIMA
  • FIA
  • OBU
  • Books
  • Forums
  • Ask AI
  • Search
  • Register
  • Login
  • ACCA Forums
  • Ask ACCA Tutor
  • FIA Forums
  • CIMA Forums
  • OBU Forums
  • Qualified Members forum
  • Buy/Sell Books
  • All Forums
  • Latest Topics

March 2026 ACCA Exams

Comments & Instant poll

20% off ACCA & CIMA Books

OpenTuition recommends the new interactive BPP books for June 2026 exams.
Get your discount code >>

Variance Analysis

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA PM Exams › Variance Analysis

  • This topic has 4 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 5 posts - 1 through 5 (of 5 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • September 8, 2015 at 5:11 pm #270469
    Debajyoti
    Member
    • Topics: 8
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    Q) Y plc produces widgets. Each widget should take 0.5 hours to make. The standard rate of pay is $10 per hour. Idle time is expected to be 5% of hours paid. They acytually produce 10,800 units. They pay $50,000 for 6,000 hours, of which 330 hours are idle. What is the excess idle time variance?

    Would appreciate your help in advance.

    September 8, 2015 at 5:22 pm #270477
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54831
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Standard idle time = 5% x 6,000 = 300 hours.

    Therefore the excess idle time is 330 – 300 = 30 hours.

    The cost per working hour = 10 / 0.95 = $10.53

    There the idle time variance = 30 x $10.53 = $315.9 (adverse)

    The free lecture on excess idle time variances will help you.

    September 8, 2015 at 5:22 pm #270478
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54831
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Standard idle time = 5% x 6,000 = 300 hours.

    Therefore the excess idle time is 330 – 300 = 30 hours.

    The cost per working hour = 10 / 0.95 = $10.53

    There the idle time variance = 30 x $10.53 = $315.9 (adverse)

    The free lecture on excess idle time variances will help you.

    September 8, 2015 at 5:34 pm #270481
    Debajyoti
    Member
    • Topics: 8
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    Thanks.

    September 8, 2015 at 7:18 pm #270512
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54831
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 5 posts - 1 through 5 (of 5 total)
  • You must be logged in to reply to this topic.
Log In

Primary Sidebar

Kaplan ACCA Free Trial

Donate
If you have benefited from our materials, please donate

ACCA News:

ACCA My Exam Performance for non-variant

Applied Skills exams is available NOW

ACCA Options:  “Read the Mind of the Marker” articles

Subscribe to ACCA’s Student Accountant Direct

ACCA CBE Exams – Instant Poll

How was your exam, and what was the exam result?

BT CBE exam was.. | MA CBE exam was..
FA CBE exam was.. | LW CBE exam was..

Donate

If you have benefited from OpenTuition please donate.

PQ Magazine

Latest Comments

  • zurapirveli@gmail.com on Equity settled share based payments – goods – ACCA (SBR) lectures
  • Sid24012003 on Intangibles – Example 2 – ACCA Financial Reporting (FR)
  • Ken Garrett on CIMA BA1 Spearman’s rank correlation coefficient
  • Ana1674 on CIMA BA1 Spearman’s rank correlation coefficient
  • tehreem21 on MA Chapter 2 Questions Sources of Data

Copyright © 2026 · Support · Contact · Advertising · OpenLicense · About · Sitemap · Comments · Log in