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Variance Analysis

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA PM Exams › Variance Analysis

  • This topic has 4 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 5 posts - 1 through 5 (of 5 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • September 8, 2015 at 5:11 pm #270469
    Debajyoti
    Member
    • Topics: 8
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    Q) Y plc produces widgets. Each widget should take 0.5 hours to make. The standard rate of pay is $10 per hour. Idle time is expected to be 5% of hours paid. They acytually produce 10,800 units. They pay $50,000 for 6,000 hours, of which 330 hours are idle. What is the excess idle time variance?

    Would appreciate your help in advance.

    September 8, 2015 at 5:22 pm #270477
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54800
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Standard idle time = 5% x 6,000 = 300 hours.

    Therefore the excess idle time is 330 – 300 = 30 hours.

    The cost per working hour = 10 / 0.95 = $10.53

    There the idle time variance = 30 x $10.53 = $315.9 (adverse)

    The free lecture on excess idle time variances will help you.

    September 8, 2015 at 5:22 pm #270478
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54800
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Standard idle time = 5% x 6,000 = 300 hours.

    Therefore the excess idle time is 330 – 300 = 30 hours.

    The cost per working hour = 10 / 0.95 = $10.53

    There the idle time variance = 30 x $10.53 = $315.9 (adverse)

    The free lecture on excess idle time variances will help you.

    September 8, 2015 at 5:34 pm #270481
    Debajyoti
    Member
    • Topics: 8
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    Thanks.

    September 8, 2015 at 7:18 pm #270512
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54800
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

  • Author
    Posts
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