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variance

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA PM Exams › variance

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • August 23, 2015 at 7:49 am #268191
    sasha
    Member
    • Topics: 99
    • Replies: 141
    • ☆☆☆

    sir i did not understand fixed overhead variance. why 3000 was favorable? and, why we using original hours instead of standard hours?

    August 23, 2015 at 7:55 pm #268262
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54809
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    It is because of using absorption costing. If you are unsure you need to watch the absorption costing lectures for Paper F2 (because this is revision of Paper F2).

    I do explain the lecture, and I can’t repeat the whole lecture here. However, it is unlikely that you would be asked the fixed overhead variances in F5 (it is in the syllabus which is why the lecture exists) but again is unlikely.

    If you really want to understand the reason then you need to watch the lectures, but frankly because of what I wrote above I would just learn the rule.

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